Unsolved Great Common Divisor and Divisibility Problem
I'm having a hard time with this problem. Need help.
Problem 1
If \(N\) and \(M\) are natural number such that
\[\frac{N}{M} = 1 - \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{4}+ \cdots - \frac{1}{2016} + \frac{1}{2017}\]
Prove that \(759\) divides \(N\).
I don't even have an idea where to begin. I'm stuck at the problem.
Problem 2
If a and b are natural number such that a+b2=(1+2)2017. Prove that gcd(a,b)=1.
I get a=(02017)+2(22017)+4(42017)+6(62017)+⋯+2014(20142017)+2016(20162017) and b=(12017)+2(32017)+4(52017)+6(72017)+⋯+2014(20152017)+2016(20172017). Then i don't know what to do.
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There must be some mistake in problem 1. I'm pretty sure that the numerators of the alternating harmonic numbers are never divisible by 3, let alone 759. For this particular one, the argument is: after taking out the two terms with denominators divisible by the maximal possible power of 3 (in this case, 36=729), write MN as
7291−14581+243BA
where A and B are integers and 3∤B. After getting a common denominator, this becomes
1458BB+6A
so the numerator is not divisible by 3.
This pretty clearly generalizes to any other alternating harmonic number.
I have told everything i tried. I have no idea about problem 1. I have solved for a and b for problem 2, but i don't know how to find their gcd. I know that 2n(n+1)=1+2+3+⋯+n, what do i do next ?
Work on understanding M in many different ways. For example, can 759∣M? Why, or why not?
Work on undersatnding a,b in many different ways. The current way that you have doesn't allow for easy manipulation. Is there another relationship that exists between a and b directly? E.g. if we can show that 2017a+7102b=1, then it follows that gcd(a,b)=1.
It's obvious that 759∣M. Let a=lcm(1,2,3,...,2017). Since 1−21+31−41+⋯−20161+20171 can be expressed as a∑n=12017(−1)n+1na with positive integer numerator and denominator. How does that will help solving for N. Wait, isn't a∑n=12017(−1)n+1na gives us the most simplified expression ? a it self is in form of M which is divisible by 759, and the problem state that N is divisible by 759. But then we can cancel out 759 and hence a∑n=12017(−1)n+1na is not the most simplified fraction in form of MN, which is a contradiction. Also i do check for the exact value of M and N for the most simplified MN on wolfram alpha and 759 did not divides N. But i still wonder, since N is divisible by some prime number greater than 2017, can we find the prime number ?
I'm not quite sure for this moment. Any more hints ?
Great, so you realize that in the naive / unsimplified numerator, we must have 7592∣N′. However, N′ still isn't a very nice number to manipulate. What can we do with it?
I don't understand your statement. Since for the most simplified MN, N is not divisible by 759, it should be divisible by some prime number greater than 2017. Then for non simplified MN, we can just multiply 759 on numerator and denominator. Isn't it that easy ? I'm super confused. Shouldn't the problem itself was wrong ?
So since (1+2)2017=a+b2 and (1−2)2017=a−b2, multiply both equation gives us ((1+2)(1−2))2017=(a+b2)(a−b2). Hence (−1)2017=−1=a2−2b2. So 2b2=a2(1)+1. By Euclidean Algorithm, a2=1(a2)+0. Hence their great common divisor is equal 1
When I said "simplified", I did not mean "in reduced form". Currently, the values MN are not easily understood. In particular, you want to claim that M=lcm(…), but if the problem statement is true, then that can't be since 759∣M. So, let's choose an equivalent form MN=BA that is not completely reduced, where A and B are easy for us to calculate and understand. The choice of B=\lcm(…) doesn't work, so what potential (naive) forms can we try? The goal here is to show that (say) 7593∣B and 7593∣A, from which we can conclude that 759∣N.
That's one reason why it's hard to definitely conclude "this particular approach will yield no result". I agree that it looks slightly unapproachable at first, and am pleasantly amazed by what @Prasun Biswas has done :)
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There must be some mistake in problem 1. I'm pretty sure that the numerators of the alternating harmonic numbers are never divisible by 3, let alone 759. For this particular one, the argument is: after taking out the two terms with denominators divisible by the maximal possible power of 3 (in this case, 36=729), write MN as 7291−14581+243BA where A and B are integers and 3∤B. After getting a common denominator, this becomes 1458BB+6A so the numerator is not divisible by 3.
This pretty clearly generalizes to any other alternating harmonic number.
What have you tried?
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I have told everything i tried. I have no idea about problem 1. I have solved for a and b for problem 2, but i don't know how to find their gcd. I know that 2n(n+1)=1+2+3+⋯+n, what do i do next ?
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Work on undersatnding a,b in many different ways. The current way that you have doesn't allow for easy manipulation. Is there another relationship that exists between a and b directly? E.g. if we can show that 2017a+7102b=1, then it follows that gcd(a,b)=1.
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I'm not quite sure for this moment. Any more hints ?
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Hint: x2−y2=(x−y)(x+y).
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So since (1+2)2017=a+b2 and (1−2)2017=a−b2, multiply both equation gives us ((1+2)(1−2))2017=(a+b2)(a−b2). Hence (−1)2017=−1=a2−2b2. So 2b2=a2(1)+1. By Euclidean Algorithm, a2=1(a2)+0. Hence their great common divisor is equal 1
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Great.
For problem 3 Try to substitute n with n=2k or n=2k+1. And then, find out when k is congruent 0 mod 10, congruent 1 mod 10, ...
A minor comment:
It's actually a=k=0∑1008(2k2017)2k, not a=(02017)+k=1∑1008(2k2017)2k
Similar comment for b.
Problem 2: Potential method Let (1+2)n=An+Bn2.
Then
An=21((1−2)n+(1+2)n)Bn=221((1+2)n−(1−2)n)
It follows from this that
An+1=2An+An−1,A0=A1=1Bn+1=2Bn+Bn−1,B0=0, B1=1
Then what is left is to proof that gcd(An,Bn)=1, which appears to be the case but I haven't found one yet.
EDIT: I've read the rest of the comments. This solution is kinda dumb
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A comment regarding your work:
The actual recurrence relation is that An+1=An+2Bn and Bn+1=An+Bn from which it follows that An+1=1×Bn+1+Bn. Then notice that we have,
An+1=1×Bn+1+BnBn+1=1×Bn+An
From the above, we note that since gcd(a,b)=gcd(b,a−b), we have,
gcd(An+1,Bn+1)=gcd(Bn+1,Bn)=gcd(An+Bn,Bn)=gcd(Bn,An)=gcd(An,Bn) ∀ n≥1
Hence, we conclude that gcd(An,Bn)=gcd(An−1,Bn−1)=⋯=gcd(A1,B1)=1.
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Very nicely done!
That's one reason why it's hard to definitely conclude "this particular approach will yield no result". I agree that it looks slightly unapproachable at first, and am pleasantly amazed by what @Prasun Biswas has done :)