We can't be prime together

\[\nexists~a,b\in\Bbb Z^+~(a\neq b)~\mid~a+x\in\Bbb P\iff b+x\in\Bbb P~\forall~x\in\Bbb Z_{\geq 0}\]

Prove the statement above.

Details and Assumptions :

  • P\Bbb P denotes the set of all prime numbers.
  • Z+\Bbb Z^+ denotes the set of all positive integers.
  • Z0=Z+{0}\Bbb Z_{\geq 0}=\Bbb Z^+\cup \{0\} denotes the set of all non-negative integers.

Source : Math StackExchange
#NumberTheory #PrimeNumbers

Note by Prasun Biswas
5 years, 6 months ago

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1 vote

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Comments

Seems simple if you use contradiction.

Suppose there does exist such an a a and b b . WLOG, let a>b a > b , and ab=d a - b = d . Now let p p be the smallest prime such that p>a p > a .

Then, by induction,we can prove all p+nd p + nd for all natural numbers n n .

This implies that in every set of d d consecutive integers, starting from an integer larger than p p , we can find at least one prime.

But this is not true for the set k(d+1)!+2,k(d+1)!+3,...k(d+1)!+(d+1) k(d+1)! + 2, k(d+1)! + 3, ... k(d+1)! + (d+1) , in which all elements are composite, and the first element is larger than p p by taking some suitable k. Hence, we have a contradiction.

Siddhartha Srivastava - 5 years, 6 months ago

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Yes, that is the intended proof. +1

However, you can cut the proof short by taking n=pn=p which would result in us getting that p+pd=p(1+d)p+pd=p(1+d) is prime. Contradiction.

The result follows.

Prasun Biswas - 5 years, 6 months ago

Hey seniors and respected professionals, please do comment in this note. I see that nowadays the scope of Brilliant has been limited to just JEE syllabus and Olympiad Mathematics, please try to promote Higher Mathematics too.

Swapnil Das - 5 years, 6 months ago

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This problem might well fit into the Olympiad math style actually. There's a really elegant proof (by contradiction) of this that uses just elementary mathematical induction.

Prasun Biswas - 5 years, 6 months ago

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Really? Cool then..

Swapnil Das - 5 years, 6 months ago
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