Given \(f\) is continous function at every real numbers, prove that \(f\) does have global maxima if given condition:
limx→∞f(x)=limx→−∞f(x)=−∞\lim_{x \to \infty} f(x) = \lim_{x \to -\infty} f(x) = -\inftyx→∞limf(x)=x→−∞limf(x)=−∞
Note by Nabila Nida Rafida 7 years, 8 months ago
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Use Rolle's Theorem(Or Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem as a general case) ..http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rolle's_theorem..
Using it we see that f′(c)=0f'(c)=0f′(c)=0 for some real ccc.
We cannot have a global minima for fff as −∞-\infty−∞ is the least "value" that any function can "attain". So fff has at least one global maximum.
E.g.
→\rightarrow→Look at the graph of y=−x2y=-x^{2}y=−x2.. It satisfies the given conditions and has a global maxima at x=0.
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Easy Math Editor
This discussion board is a place to discuss our Daily Challenges and the math and science related to those challenges. Explanations are more than just a solution — they should explain the steps and thinking strategies that you used to obtain the solution. Comments should further the discussion of math and science.
When posting on Brilliant:
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[example link](https://brilliant.org)
> This is a quote
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2^{34}
a_{i-1}
\frac{2}{3}
\sqrt{2}
\sum_{i=1}^3
\sin \theta
\boxed{123}
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Use Rolle's Theorem(Or Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem as a general case) ..http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rolle's_theorem..
Using it we see that f′(c)=0 for some real c.
We cannot have a global minima for f as −∞ is the least "value" that any function can "attain". So f has at least one global maximum.
E.g.
→Look at the graph of y=−x2.. It satisfies the given conditions and has a global maxima at x=0.