\(e^{i\pi} = -1\)
⇒e2iπ=(−1)2\Rightarrow e^{2i\pi} = (-1)^2⇒e2iπ=(−1)2 (Squaring both sides)
⇒e2iπ=1\Rightarrow e^{2i\pi} = 1⇒e2iπ=1
⇒e2iπ=e0\Rightarrow e^{2i\pi} = e^0⇒e2iπ=e0
⇒2×i×π=0\Rightarrow 2 \times i \times \pi = 0⇒2×i×π=0
But how can this be???
2≠02 \neq 0 2=0 AND i≠0 i \neq 0 i=0 AND π≠0 \pi \neq 0π=0
Then how can 2×i×π=0?? 2 \times i \times \pi = 0??2×i×π=0??
Note by Nishant Ranjan 1 year, 6 months ago
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The error is in saying that ex=eye^x = e^yex=ey implies that x=y.x=y.x=y. This is true for the real exponential function, but for the complex exponential function, this is very false.
f(a)=f(b) ⟹ a=b f(a) = f(b) \implies a = b f(a)=f(b)⟹a=b is only true for monotonic functions. For oscillatory functions (such as complex exponentials), it doesn't hold. For example, sin(0)=sin(2π) \sin(0) = \sin(2 \pi) sin(0)=sin(2π) but it doesn't follow that 0=2π 0 = 2 \pi 0=2π
Hi there, the 2π here actually refers to how many radians around the unit circle we go. So e^(0i) means we have no rotation, so we're at 1. e^(πi) means we're halfway round the circle, so we're at -1. e^(πi/2) means that we're at +i. e^(3πi/2) means that we're at -i. And lastly at a full revolution, back to the start we're at e^(2πi), so back at one. This means that e^(2nπi) = 1 also for all n in the natural numbers.
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Thanks for clearing my doubt.
2iπ ∈ ln(1) and 0 ∈ ln(1)
∈ means "element of set" because there is a solution set. It also may in this context mean "is a solution of."
ln(1) has multiple solutions, which are all the 0iπ, 2iπ, 4iπ, -2iπ... AFAIK. To check for all real solutions or all complex solutions, we can use algebra. But to prove for "all" points, I think you would have to account for ∞, -∞, ∞i, -∞i, and probably these "quaternion" numbers, there would be just so much. We can at least check for "all real or complex solutions" and that may be good. Very clever spinoff of a classic paradox.
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The error is in saying that ex=ey implies that x=y. This is true for the real exponential function, but for the complex exponential function, this is very false.
f(a)=f(b)⟹a=b is only true for monotonic functions. For oscillatory functions (such as complex exponentials), it doesn't hold. For example, sin(0)=sin(2π) but it doesn't follow that 0=2π
Hi there, the 2π here actually refers to how many radians around the unit circle we go. So e^(0i) means we have no rotation, so we're at 1. e^(πi) means we're halfway round the circle, so we're at -1. e^(πi/2) means that we're at +i. e^(3πi/2) means that we're at -i. And lastly at a full revolution, back to the start we're at e^(2πi), so back at one. This means that e^(2nπi) = 1 also for all n in the natural numbers.
Log in to reply
Thanks for clearing my doubt.
2iπ ∈ ln(1) and 0 ∈ ln(1)
∈ means "element of set" because there is a solution set. It also may in this context mean "is a solution of."
ln(1) has multiple solutions, which are all the 0iπ, 2iπ, 4iπ, -2iπ... AFAIK. To check for all real solutions or all complex solutions, we can use algebra. But to prove for "all" points, I think you would have to account for ∞, -∞, ∞i, -∞i, and probably these "quaternion" numbers, there would be just so much. We can at least check for "all real or complex solutions" and that may be good. Very clever spinoff of a classic paradox.