Which is greater?

Define f(x)=n=0x2n+1(2n+1)!f(x)= \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!} and g(x)=n=0x2n(2n)!g(x)= \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{x^{2n}}{(2n)!}, where xx is a real number. Then which of f(x)f(x) or g(x)g(x) is greater for all xx?

#Sequences #Goldbach'sConjurersGroup

Note by A Brilliant Member
7 years, 4 months ago

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Comments

Let us start by writing the Maclaurin Series for ex\displaystyle e^x,
ex=n=0xnn!\displaystyle e^x = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n!}
ex=n=0(1)nxnn!\displaystyle e^{-x} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^n \frac{x^n}{n!}

Thus,
f(x)=exex2\displaystyle f(x) = \frac{e^x-e^{-x}}{2}, and

g(x)=ex+ex2\displaystyle g(x) = \frac{e^x+e^{-x}}{2}

It is clear that, g(x)>f(x)g(x)>f(x), as the ex\displaystyle e^{-x} term is added to the first term in g(x)\displaystyle g(x), whereas it is subtracted from the first term in f(x)\displaystyle f(x).

Anish Puthuraya - 7 years, 4 months ago

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Good.

A Brilliant Member - 7 years, 4 months ago

f(x)f(x) is the power series for sinhx\sinh x and g(x)g(x) is the power series for coshx.\cosh x. Use the fact that g(x)f(x)=coshxsinhx=ex>0g(x)-f(x)=\cosh x-\sinh x=e^{-x}>0 for all x.x. Therefore, g(x)>f(x)g(x)>f(x) for all x.x.

Anish's solution is good as well; I prefer using hyperbolic trig functions for these kind of series though.

Trevor B. - 7 years, 4 months ago

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Nice.

A Brilliant Member - 7 years, 4 months ago
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