Why am I not getting it?

I got this statement from a maths reference book,

"Family of circles circumscribing a triangle whose sides are given by ${ L }_{ 1 }=0, { L }_{ 2 }=0$ & ${ L }_{ 3 }=0$ is given by : ${ L }_{ 1 }{ L }_{ 2 }+\lambda { L }_{ 2 }{ L }_{ 3 }+\mu { L }_{ 3 }{ L }_{ 1 }=0$ provided co-efficient of $xy=0$ and co-efficient of ${ x }^{ 2 }$ =co-efficient of ${ y }^{ 2 }$ ."

I didn't understand this statement. Intersection of ${ L }_{ 1 }=0,{ L }_{ 2 }=0$ & ${ L }_{ 3 }=0$ gives three unique points and we know that one and only one circle passes though three non-collinear points. So how could a family of circles exist?

Easy Math Editor

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Math	Appears as
Remember to wrap math in `\(` ... `\)` or `\[` ... `\]` to ensure proper formatting.
`2 \times 3`	$2 \times 3$
`2^{34}`	$2^{34}$
`a_{i-1}`	$a_{i-1}$
`\frac{2}{3}`	$\frac{2}{3}$
`\sqrt{2}`	$\sqrt{2}$
`\sum_{i=1}^3`	$\sum_{i=1}^3$
`\sin \theta`	$\sin \theta$
`\boxed{123}`	$\boxed{123}$