Do there exist number bases a and b such that 1 1 1 a = 1 1 1 1 b ?
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I find it easier to just show that the cubic discriminant of the polynomial (in b ) is always negative.
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Perhaps you should post a solution? I, for one, am interested to see it.
For every value of b ≥ 2 there exists a positive real number a = 2 4 ( b 3 + b 2 + b ) + 1 − 1 such that a 2 + a + 1 = b 3 + b 2 + b + 1 ; the only problem is that it never is an integer.
Conversely, given a ≥ 2 , define q = a 2 + a + 2 7 7 , D = q 2 + 7 2 9 3 2 , and b = 3 2 q + 2 1 D + 3 2 q − 2 1 D − 3 1 , we have again a positive solution for the equation, but it is never an integer.
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Posted.
Ah Cardano's . I'm not a huge fan of it, but I appreciate this approach.
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@Pi Han Goh – I only use it to try and convince you that the equation always has at least one real solution, contrary to what you claim.
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@Arjen Vreugdenhil – Whoops, I didn't realize my error until you literally spelled it out for me.
Disclaimer: As pointed out by Arjen, my Method 1 is completely wrong! But my method 2 still works! Yayyyy!!
Method 1:
The equation in question is equivalent to a 2 + a + 1 = b 3 + b 2 + b + 1 ⇔ b 3 + b 2 + b + ( − a 2 − a ) = 0 .
Suppose there exist number bases a and b , then the cubic equation above (in b ) must have a non-negative discriminant . That is
1 − 4 − 4 ( − a 2 − a ) − 2 7 ( − a 2 − a ) 2 + 1 8 ( − a 2 − a ) ≥ 0 .
Simplifying this inequality gives 2 7 a 4 + 5 4 a 3 + 4 1 a 2 + 1 4 a + 3 ≤ 0 . But since every single term in LHS is a positive number, the inequality cannot be fulfilled. A contradiction!
Method 2:
The equation in question is equivalent to a 2 + a + 1 = b 3 + b 2 + b + 1 ⇔ a 2 + a + ( − b 3 − b 2 − b ) = 0 .
Suppose there exist number bases a and b , then the discriminant above (in a ) must be a perfect square. That is, for some integer c ,
1 2 − 4 ( − b 3 − b 2 − b ) = c 2 ⇔ 1 − c 2 = 4 ( − b 3 − b 2 − b ) .
If c is even, then LHS is odd and RHS is even, which is absurd. Thus c must be odd. Let c = 2 d + 1 for some integer d , then the equation simplifies to
1 − ( 2 d + 1 ) 2 = 4 ( − b 3 − b 2 − b ) ⇔ b 3 + b 2 + b + 1 = d 2 + d + 1 ,
which is where we started with (just replacing a with d ). So, there's no solution by infinite descent .
Solution 1 won't work: A cubic equation has { one real solution three real solutions if D < 0 if D > 0
(Proof that there is always one real solution: let f ( x ) = a x 3 + O ( x 2 ) with a > 0 . Then there exist x − < x + such that f ( x − ) < 0 and f ( x + ) > 0 . Since f is continuous on [ x − , x + ] , the middle-value theorem says there exists x − < x 0 < x + such that f ( x 0 ) = 0 . The argument for a < 0 is similar.)
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Ah, sorry. For some reason, I was thinking of it from a "quadratic discriminant's point of view".
I won't remove "Method 1", but I'll leave a disclaimer for others to read.
Solution 2: Nice use of infinite descent!
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If there were such a pair ( a , b ) , it would satisfy the equation a 2 + a + 1 = b 3 + b 2 + b + 1 . Subtracting one and factoring gives ( a + 1 ) a = ( b 2 + b + 1 ) b . Let d be the greatest common divisor of a and b ; write a = a ′ d and b = b ′ d . Then ( d a ′ + 1 ) a ′ = ( e b ′ + 1 ) b ′ with e = d ( b 2 + b ) . Since d a ′ + 1 is one more than a multiple of a ′ , they are coprime; the same holds true for e ′ b + 1 and b ′ . Moreover, a ′ and b ′ are coprime. But then this equation can only be satisfied if d a ′ + 1 = b ′ , a ′ = e b ′ + 1 . This would imply that a ′ > b ′ and b ′ > a ′ , which is impossible.