∫ 0 − ∞ [ 2 a t ζ ( b t ) − 2 c − d t ζ ( t ) ] d t
If S = lo g 2 e − lo g 4 e + lo g 6 e − lo g 8 e … can be expressed as the integral above for positive integers a , b , c , d are positive integers, find the value of 2 0 0 ( a 2 + b 2 + c 2 − 8 d ) .
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@Kartik Sharma @Rajdeep Dhingra please see my report to verify its validity.
Nicely done ! @Kartik Sharma
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I've been thinking about whether this integral representation is valid or not, considering the Riemann zeta function as the series ζ ( s ) = n = 1 ∑ ∞ n − s really only applies for R e ( s ) > 1 .
It was a nice question to get back into the Brilliant mode ! All this time I have been in the offline mode , doing easy Math Questions in the entrance exams .. :(
You fraud ! :P You copied my method ! Jk , I too solved it similarly but I solved it in 4 minutes , can you beat that ?
Btw , I don't think many people will understand the meaning of lo ;)
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Lol! Io, well yeah maybe! But 4 minutes is really good. Welcome back(though partially)!
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Well , I'm not back :P Rajdeep asked me to solve this question and hence I came ..
I cannot say for sure when I'll be back but I can try to make an appearance after I get into BITS Pilani or MIT .
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@A Former Brilliant Member – Aren't you going to IIT ?
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@Rajdeep Dhingra – Well , I wanted to go there at first , but I'm getting less marks in Physics in JEE Mains , so I can't get into any of the good IITs ,bombay,madras,kgp or kanpur :(
SO I am studying solely for BITSAT now .
But I K you'll get JEE AIR 1 :D
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@A Former Brilliant Member
–
Thanks,
JEE main Marks don't count in Advance. So if you do good in Advance then you can get a decent IIT
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@Rajdeep Dhingra – Still , I dk if I'll be able to pull off a decent performance,mostly owing to my JEE Mains Physics scare . But I can always go for BITSAT full on .
Let's see , nothing is in our hands . I'll pray that god stays by my side ^_^
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@A Former Brilliant Member – Best of Luck.
@A Former Brilliant Member – MIT!?? Massachusetts Institute of Technology?
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@Kartik Sharma – Nah , Manipal Institute of Tech. , Idk why but my teachers tell it's a good place to go to .
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Well, nice problem!
f ( x ) = l o g 2 e − l o g 4 e + l o g 6 e . . .
We know that l o g a b = l n ( a ) l n ( b )
Hence, f ( x ) becomes -
k = 1 ∑ ∞ l n ( 2 k ) ( − 1 ) k − 1
Now, we know that ∫ a x = l n ( a ) a x
Io, we have got the natural logarithm in the denominator!
We here would try to guess about the bounds. As we can see, we need 1 in the numerator and that a 0 = 1 . Also, the 2nd bound must make the function zero. Well... what's l n ( 0 ) ? You got it right - − ∞ , so we have got the other too.
l n ( 2 k ) 1 = ∫ − ∞ 0 ( 2 k ) x
Well, we can do 2 more things,
l n ( 2 k ) 1 = ( − 1 ) ( − 1 ) ∫ 0 − ∞ ( 2 k ) − x
Put in the sum,
k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) k − 1 ∫ 0 − ∞ ( 2 k ) − x
Getting integral sign outside,
∫ 0 − ∞ k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( 2 k ) x ( − 1 ) k − 1
∫ 0 − ∞ 2 − x k = 1 ∑ ∞ k x ( − 1 ) k − 1
Now, we will first find out the sum -
We know ζ ( x ) = k = 1 ∑ ∞ a x 1
Multiplying 2 1 − x both sides,
( 2 1 − x ζ ( x ) = k = 1 ∑ ∞ 2 a x 2
Subtracting these 2 equations(1-2),
2 − x ( 2 x − 2 ) ζ ( x ) = k = 1 ∑ ∞ a x ( − 1 ) k − 1
Hence, the function under integral sign equates to
2 − 2 x ( 2 x − 2 ) ζ ( x ) = 2 − x ζ ( x ) − 2 1 − 2 x ζ ( x )
As a result,
∫ 0 − ∞ 2 − x ζ ( x ) − 2 1 − 2 x ζ ( x )