200 Followers Problem

Calculus Level 5

0 [ 2 a t ζ ( b t ) 2 c d t ζ ( t ) ] d t \displaystyle \int_{0}^{-\infty} \left [ 2^{at} \zeta(bt) - 2^{c-dt} \zeta(t) \right ] \ dt

If S = log 2 e log 4 e + log 6 e log 8 e S = \log_{2}{e} - \log_{4}{e} + \log_{6}{e} - \log_{8}{e} \ldots can be expressed as the integral above for positive integers a , b , c , d a,b,c,d are positive integers, find the value of 200 ( a 2 + b 2 + c 2 8 d ) 200(a^2 + b^2 + c^2 - \sqrt{8d}) .


The answer is -200.00000.

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1 solution

Kartik Sharma
Apr 20, 2015

Well, nice problem!

f ( x ) = l o g 2 e l o g 4 e + l o g 6 e . . . f(x) = {log}_{2}e - {log}_{4}e + {log}_{6}e...

We know that l o g a b = l n ( b ) l n ( a ) {log}_{a}b = \frac{ln(b)}{ln(a)}

Hence, f ( x ) f(x) becomes -

k = 1 ( 1 ) k 1 l n ( 2 k ) \displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}{\frac{{(-1)}^{k-1}}{ln(2k)}}

Now, we know that a x = a x l n ( a ) \displaystyle \int{{a}^{x}} = \frac{{a}^{x}}{ln(a)}

Io, we have got the natural logarithm in the denominator!

We here would try to guess about the bounds. As we can see, we need 1 1 in the numerator and that a 0 = 1 {a}^{0} = 1 . Also, the 2nd bound must make the function zero. Well... what's l n ( 0 ) ln(0) ? You got it right - -\infty , so we have got the other too.

1 l n ( 2 k ) = 0 ( 2 k ) x \displaystyle \frac{1}{ln(2k)} = \int_{-\infty}^{0}{{(2k)}^{x}}

Well, we can do 2 more things,

1 l n ( 2 k ) = ( 1 ) ( 1 ) 0 ( 2 k ) x \displaystyle \frac{1}{ln(2k)} = (-1)(-1)\int_{0}^{-\infty}{{(2k)}^{-x}}

Put in the sum,

k = 1 ( 1 ) k 1 0 ( 2 k ) x \displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}{{(-1)}^{k-1}\int_{0}^{-\infty}{{(2k)}^{-x}}}

Getting integral sign outside,

0 k = 1 ( 1 ) k 1 ( 2 k ) x \displaystyle \int_{0}^{-\infty}{\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}{\frac{{(-1)}^{k-1}}{{(2k)}^{x}}}}

0 2 x k = 1 ( 1 ) k 1 k x \displaystyle \int_{0}^{-\infty}{{2}^{-x}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}{\frac{{(-1)}^{k-1}}{{k}^{x}}}}

Now, we will first find out the sum -

We know ζ ( x ) = k = 1 1 a x \displaystyle \zeta(x) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{{a}^{x}}}

Multiplying 2 1 x {2}^{1-x} both sides,

( 2 1 x ζ ( x ) = k = 1 2 2 a x \displaystyle ({2}^{1-x}\zeta(x) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}{\frac{2}{{2a}^{x}}}

Subtracting these 2 equations(1-2),

2 x ( 2 x 2 ) ζ ( x ) = k = 1 ( 1 ) k 1 a x \displaystyle {2}^{-x}({2}^x - 2)\zeta(x) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}{\frac{{(-1)}^{k-1}}{{a}^{x}}}

Hence, the function under integral sign equates to

2 2 x ( 2 x 2 ) ζ ( x ) = 2 x ζ ( x ) 2 1 2 x ζ ( x ) \displaystyle {2}^{-2x}({2}^{x} - 2)\zeta(x) = {2}^{-x}\zeta(x) - {2}^{1-2x}\zeta(x)

As a result,

0 2 x ζ ( x ) 2 1 2 x ζ ( x ) \displaystyle \int_{0}^{-\infty}{{2}^{-x}\zeta(x) - {2}^{1-2x}\zeta(x)}

@Kartik Sharma @Rajdeep Dhingra please see my report to verify its validity.

Jake Lai - 6 years, 1 month ago

Nicely done ! @Kartik Sharma

Rajdeep Dhingra - 6 years, 1 month ago

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I've been thinking about whether this integral representation is valid or not, considering the Riemann zeta function as the series ζ ( s ) = n = 1 n s \displaystyle \zeta(s) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} n^{-s} really only applies for R e ( s ) > 1 Re(s) > 1 .

Jake Lai - 6 years, 1 month ago

@Rajdeep Dhingra

It was a nice question to get back into the Brilliant mode ! All this time I have been in the offline mode , doing easy Math Questions in the entrance exams .. :(


@Kartik Sharma

You fraud ! :P You copied my method ! Jk , I too solved it similarly but I solved it in 4 minutes , can you beat that ?

Btw , I don't think many people will understand the meaning of lo ;)

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 1 month ago

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Lol! Io, well yeah maybe! But 4 minutes is really good. Welcome back(though partially)!

Kartik Sharma - 6 years, 1 month ago

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Well , I'm not back :P Rajdeep asked me to solve this question and hence I came ..

I cannot say for sure when I'll be back but I can try to make an appearance after I get into BITS Pilani or MIT .

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member Aren't you going to IIT ?

Rajdeep Dhingra - 6 years, 1 month ago

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@Rajdeep Dhingra Well , I wanted to go there at first , but I'm getting less marks in Physics in JEE Mains , so I can't get into any of the good IITs ,bombay,madras,kgp or kanpur :(

SO I am studying solely for BITSAT now .

But I K you'll get JEE AIR 1 :D

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member Thanks,
JEE main Marks don't count in Advance. So if you do good in Advance then you can get a decent IIT

Rajdeep Dhingra - 6 years, 1 month ago

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@Rajdeep Dhingra Still , I dk if I'll be able to pull off a decent performance,mostly owing to my JEE Mains Physics scare . But I can always go for BITSAT full on .

Let's see , nothing is in our hands . I'll pray that god stays by my side ^_^

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member Best of Luck.

Rajdeep Dhingra - 6 years, 1 month ago

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@Rajdeep Dhingra Thanks :D

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 1 month ago

@A Former Brilliant Member MIT!?? Massachusetts Institute of Technology?

Kartik Sharma - 6 years, 1 month ago

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@Kartik Sharma Nah , Manipal Institute of Tech. , Idk why but my teachers tell it's a good place to go to .

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 1 month ago

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