300 Followers Question

Algebra Level 3

n = 1 ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) n ( n + 3 ) = ? \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{(n+1)(n+2)}{n(n+3)} = \, ?


The answer is 3.

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6 solutions

Krishna Sharma
Mar 24, 2015

Just for a change, take log on both the sides and make pairs(let the value of expression be S)

ln ( S ) = n = 1 ( ln ( n + 1 ) ln ( n ) ) + n = 1 ( ln ( n + 2 ) ln ( n + 3 ) ) \displaystyle \ln(S) = \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty } \left( \ln(n+1) - \ln(n) \right) + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty } \left( \ln(n+2) - \ln(n+3) \right)

Now they both are telescoping series, the first one will converge to 0 and the second one will converge to ln ( 3 ) \ln(3)

ln S = l n 3 S = 3 \therefore \ln S = ln3 \implies \boxed{\boxed{S = 3}}


Lol I solved this orally

You don't even need to use logarithm. You can use the technique of telescoping product. Note that the product can be rewritten as,

n = 1 ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) n ( n + 3 ) = ( n = 2 n ) ( n = 3 n ) ( n = 1 n ) ( n = 4 n ) = 2 × 3 2 2 × 3 ( n = 4 n 2 n 2 ) = 3 \displaystyle\prod_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(n+1)(n+2)}{n(n+3)}=\frac{\left(\displaystyle\prod_{n=2}^\infty n\right)\cdot\left(\displaystyle\prod_{n=3}^\infty n\right)}{\left(\displaystyle\prod_{n=1}^\infty n\right)\cdot\left(\displaystyle\prod_{n=4}^\infty n\right)}=\frac{2\times 3^2}{2\times 3}\cdot \left(\displaystyle\prod_{n=4}^\infty \frac{n^2}{n^2}\right)=\boxed{3}

The product converges because the denominator grows faster than the numerator.

Prasun Biswas - 6 years, 2 months ago

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Great solution yar...

Dodda Praful - 6 years, 2 months ago

Its just that I am more comfortable with log :)

Krishna Sharma - 6 years, 2 months ago

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Well yes, everybody has their own preferences. :)

Prasun Biswas - 6 years, 2 months ago

Greatly solved. Nice

Zeeshan Ali - 6 years, 2 months ago

you are BRILLIANT bro......

anshul shivhare - 6 years, 1 month ago

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I'm nowhere near brilliant, dude! I'm just an ordinary guy with somewhat of an average knowledge in math.

Prasun Biswas - 6 years, 1 month ago

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@Prasun Biswas i am glad to follow a guy like you............

anshul shivhare - 6 years, 1 month ago

Nice solution :) This one makes mine look so dumb .

+1 !

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 2 months ago

This was indeed an oral problem.

Ronak Agarwal - 6 years, 2 months ago

Nice solution.... Did in a similar way..

Vighnesh Raut - 6 years, 2 months ago

Figure these two out separately: (n+1)/n and (n+2)/(n+3). You have R+1 and 3/R+3= 3 × R+1/R+3 Since R is "infinite" R+1/R+3 = 1 So answer is 3

ryan conlin - 2 years, 7 months ago

We know that

n = 1 ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) n ( n + 3 ) = n = 1 ( n + 1 ) × n = 1 ( n + 2 ) × n = 1 1 n × n = 1 1 ( n + 3 ) \displaystyle \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{(n+1)(n+2)}{n(n+3)} = \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} (n+1) \times \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} (n+2) \times \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n} \times \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{(n+3)}

Let's deal with the first product .

n = 1 ( n + 1 ) = lim n ( 1 + 1 ) ( 1 + 2 ) ( 1 + 3 ) ( 1 + n ) \displaystyle \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} (n+1) = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} (1+1)(1+2)(1+3)\dots(1+n)

Let's use the Gauss form of Gamma Function , which is

Γ ( x ) = lim n n x n ! x ( x + 1 ) ( x + 2 ) ( x + n ) \displaystyle \Gamma(x) = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \dfrac{n^{x} n!}{x(x+1)(x+2) \dots (x+n)}

\therefore We have ,

x Γ ( x ) = lim n n x n ! ( x + 1 ) ( x + 2 ) ( x + n ) \displaystyle x \Gamma(x) = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \dfrac{n^{x} n!}{(x+1)(x+2) \dots (x+n)}

Which gives us ,

n = 1 ( x + n ) = n x n ! x Γ ( x ) \displaystyle \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} (x+n) = \dfrac{n^{x}n!}{x\Gamma(x)}

\therefore We get the following ,

n = 1 ( 1 + n ) = n 1 n ! Γ ( 1 ) n = 1 ( 2 + n ) = n 2 n ! 2 Γ ( 2 ) n = 1 ( 3 + n ) = n 3 n ! 3 Γ ( 3 ) \displaystyle \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} (1+n) = \dfrac{n^{1}n!}{\Gamma(1)} \\ \displaystyle \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} (2+n) = \dfrac{n^{2}n!}{2\cdot\Gamma(2)} \\ \displaystyle \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} (3+n) = \dfrac{n^{3}n!}{3\cdot\Gamma(3)}

And we also know that r = 1 n 1 r = 1 n ! \prod_{r=1}^{n} \frac{1}{r} = \frac{1}{n!}

Now all that's left is some multiplication and division ,

n = 1 ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) n ( n + 3 ) \displaystyle \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{(n+1)(n+2)}{n(n+3)}

= n 1 n ! Γ ( 1 ) × n 2 n ! 2 Γ ( 2 ) × 1 n ! × 3 Γ ( 3 ) n 3 n ! = \dfrac{n^{1}n!}{\Gamma(1)} \times \dfrac{n^{2}n!}{2\cdot \Gamma(2)} \times \dfrac{1}{n!} \times \dfrac{3\cdot\Gamma(3)}{n^{3}n!}

= 3 Γ ( 3 ) 2 Γ ( 2 ) = \dfrac{3\cdot \Gamma(3)}{2\cdot \Gamma(2)}

= 3 = 3

Awesome technique ! thanks for sharing it @Azhaghu Roopesh M

Karan Shekhawat - 6 years, 2 months ago

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Thanks ¨ \ddot\smile

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 2 months ago

Woah! You really damn overthought it!

Kartik Sharma - 6 years, 2 months ago

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Nope!! It's just that I remember these identities so I solved it in 4 steps(but 4 is still longer) , I just wanted to make it clear to the others , but I guess I failed !

Also I created this question using the Gauss form , I never realised that you could bash this question so easily . But BEWARE , I will release a tougher version of this question :P

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 2 months ago

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Waiting for it!

Kartik Sharma - 6 years, 2 months ago
Julian Poon
Mar 25, 2015

n = 1 k ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) n ( n + 3 ) = k ! × k ! 2 ! k ! × k ! 3 ! = 1 2 ! 1 3 ! = 3 \prod _{ n=1 }^{ k }{ \frac { (n+1)(n+2) }{ { n(n+3) } } } =\frac { k!\times \frac { k! }{ 2! } }{ k!\times \frac { k! }{ 3! } } =\frac { \frac { 1 }{ 2! } }{ \frac { 1 }{ 3! } } =3

Solved this in my head too... Nice problem!

I can see a big error in your solution. You're considering a finite upper limit k k for the product. In that case, your value should be dependent on k k .

The main error you made in your solution was not noticing the fact that,

n = 1 k ( n + m ) = ( k + m ) ! m ! k ! m ! for a finite k and some constant m \prod_{n=1}^k (n+m)=\frac{(k+m)!}{m!}\neq \frac{k!}{m!}~\textrm{for a finite }k\textrm{ and some constant }m

Key point: When you shift the index of a sum or product where the limits are finite, the shifting is the same for both lower and upper limits because the number of terms of the sum/product is always the same.

Prasun Biswas - 6 years, 2 months ago

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Oh yeah....... Thanks.

Julian Poon - 6 years, 2 months ago

Thanks ¨ \ddot\smile

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 2 months ago
Rick B
Mar 25, 2015

Basically, n = 1 n=1 , and the only thing that increases in each new fraction is what's being summed to n n in each of the factors of its numerator and denominator. But I will still use n n , instead of 1 1 , until the very end of the solution, because I think it's easier to visualize it this way:

Simply predicting how many times each number will appear in the numerator and in the denominator:

n = 1 ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) n ( n + 3 ) = 1 n n + 1 n + 1 ( n + 2 ) 2 n + 2 ( n + 3 n + 3 ) 2 ( n + 4 n + 4 ) 2 ( n + 5 n + 5 ) 2 \displaystyle\prod_{n=1}^\infty \dfrac{(n+1)(n+2)}{n(n+3)} = \dfrac{1}{n} \cdot \dfrac{n+1}{n+1} \cdot \dfrac{(n+2)^2}{n+2} \cdot \left(\dfrac{n+3}{n+3}\right)^2 \cdot \left(\dfrac{n+4}{n+4}\right)^2 \cdot \left(\dfrac{n+5}{n+5}\right)^2 \cdots

= 1 n 1 n + 2 1 1 2 1 2 1 2 = n + 2 n = 1 + 2 1 = 3 = \dfrac{1}{n} \cdot 1 \cdot \dfrac{n+2}{1} \cdot 1^2 \cdot 1^2 \cdot 1^2 \cdots = \dfrac{n+2}{n} = \dfrac{1+2}{1} = \boxed{3}

Deep Shah
Mar 29, 2015

As we can see denominator is larger than numerator the term converges

So after some point we would be very near to answer as the term will converge to 1

Here is my C code

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#include<stdio.h>

int main()

{

    int i;

    double ans=1;   

    for(i=1;i<10000;i++)

    {

        ans = ans * (i+1) * (i+2);

        ans = (ans / (i))/(i+3);

    }

    printf("%d\n",(int)(ans+0.5));

}

The line (int)(ans+0.5) is simply to round - off to upper bound

Hi Deep !

Type out your code using the following format (without the "") and write your code between C and the "```" marks .

"```C

```"

To get the output as :

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include<stdio.h>

int main()

{

int i;

double ans=1;   

for(i=1;i<10000;i++)

{

    ans = ans * (i+1) * (i+2);

    ans = (ans / (i))/(i+3);

}

printf("%d\n",(int)(ans+0.5));

}

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 2 months ago

Thnxx Azhaghu Roopesh M

Deep Shah - 6 years, 2 months ago
Curtis Clement
Mar 25, 2015

Firstly, write out the series and simplify as much as possible: ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) n ( n + 3 ) × ( n + 2 ) ( n + 3 ) ( n + 1 ) ( n + 4 ) × ( n + 3 ) ( n + 4 ) ( n + 2 ) ( n + 5 ) × . . . \frac{(n+1)(n+2)}{n(n+3)} \times\frac{(n+2)(n+3)}{(n+1)(n+4)} \times\frac{(n+3)(n+4)}{(n+2)(n+5)} \times\ ... Now we start with n=1 so we are left with: 3 × lim n n 2 n = 3 × lim n ( 1 2 n ) = 3 3 \times\lim_{n \rightarrow\infty } \frac{n-2}{n} = 3 \times\lim_{n \rightarrow\infty } (1 - \frac{2}{n} ) = \boxed{3}

Simplicity is beauty :)

Jessica Wang - 6 years, 2 months ago

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