8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
Find the last two digits of the number above.
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Nicely done, can you generalize this for n 8 ?
Here's the generalization:
The method is almost the same as the original solution, so I'm leaving out a few details of my steps. Keeping track of them is left as an exercise to the reader.
n 8 ≡ { 0 ( m o d 4 ) ( 8 ( n − 1 ) 8 m o d 2 0 ) ( m o d 2 5 ) , n ≥ 2
We have n ≥ 2 here so that n − 1 8 is defined. Now,
( n − 1 ) 8 ≡ { 0 ( m o d 4 ) ( 8 ( n − 2 ) 8 m o d 4 ) ( m o d 5 ) ⟹ ( n − 1 ) 8 ≡ { 0 ( m o d 4 ) 1 ( m o d 5 ) , n ≥ 3
Why do we have n ≥ 3 ? Same reason as before. Because,
n − 2 > 0 , n ∈ Z ⟺ n ≥ 3 , n ∈ Z ⟺ n − 2 8 ≡ 0 ( m o d 4 ) ⟹ n − 1 8 ≡ 1 ( m o d 5 )
If n < 3 , then n − 2 8 wouldn't be defined and we wouldn't be able to apply Lemma 1 to get a simplified computable congruence system. We'll compute the n = 1 , 2 cases separately at the end. Now, combining results of the last congruence system using Chinese Remainder Theorem gives us n − 1 8 m o d 2 0 = 1 6 , n ≥ 3 and subsequently makes our initial congruence system,
n ≥ 3 ∧ n 8 ≡ { 0 ( m o d 4 ) 8 1 6 ≡ 6 ( m o d 2 5 )
Combining the results using Chinese Remainder Theorem yields us the following:
n 8 ≡ 5 6 ( m o d 1 0 0 ) ∀ n ≥ 3 , n ∈ Z
Now, let us compute the n = 1 , 2 cases manually.
1 8 = 8 ≡ 8 ( m o d 1 0 0 ) 2 8 = 8 8 ≡ ( 5 1 2 ) 2 ⋅ ( 6 4 ) ≡ 1 2 2 ⋅ 6 4 ≡ 1 4 4 × 6 4 ≡ 4 4 × 6 4 ≡ 1 6 ( m o d 1 0 0 )
Hence, we have,
n 8 m o d 1 0 0 = ⎩ ⎪ ⎨ ⎪ ⎧ 8 , n = 1 1 6 , n = 2 5 6 ∀ n ≥ 3 ∧ n ∈ Z
<Insert Challenge Completed Meme here>
@Swapnil Das @Archit Boobna how did you guys do it?
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By Prasun Biswas's Process. And also some backside- the -envelope calculations!
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meaning of the last sentence?
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@Adarsh Kumar – Ever saw Einstein scratching his head for hours for the most simple questions? Found no spare paper and wrote the rest backside the envelope. If U r talking to me, this implies that I am improving in Mathematics!
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@Swapnil Das – No,I never "SAW" Einstein and yes,you are improving in Mathematics!
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@Adarsh Kumar – How did U know,by my levels? Well, I never SAW einstein, but that is how the phrase is defined!
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@Swapnil Das – yeah actually!
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@Adarsh Kumar – I hated the "all yellow" look of levels initially!
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@Swapnil Das – yeah! me too!
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@Adarsh Kumar – It's quiet irritating! whoo! Well, thanks for talking to me!
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@Swapnil Das – hey!don't say that!i will talk to u whenever you want man!
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@Adarsh Kumar – further conversation after 30 mins,going to market sorry
We will study numbers of the form 8 8 8 n , where n is a positive integer. This format includes m 8 for m ≥ 3 .
Now 8 8 n = 1 6 6 n ≡ 1 6 ( m o d 2 0 ) since they are congruent both mod 5 and mod 4. Then 8 8 8 n ≡ 8 1 6 = 2 4 8 ≡ 2 8 ( m o d 2 5 ) because 2 0 = ϕ ( 2 5 ) . Since all terms are divisible by 4, we have in effect 8 8 8 n ≡ 2 8 = 2 5 6 ≡ 5 6 ( m o d 1 0 0 ) .
Fantastic!
In fact, 3 8 , 4 8 , 5 8 … all give the same last two digits. We'll prove it for n 8 , n ≥ 3 .
1 0 0 = 4 ⋅ 2 5 . Obviously n 8 = 4 k for some k ∈ Z .
By Euler's Theorem, n 8 ≡ 8 n − 1 8 ( m o d 2 0 ) ≡ 2 3 ( n − 1 8 ) ( m o d 2 0 ) ( m o d 2 5 )
n − 1 8 ≡ 1 6 ( m o d 2 0 ) , since ( ( 8 2 ) 2 ) 2 ≡ ( ( − 4 ) 2 ) 2 ≡ 1 6 2 ≡ 1 6 ( m o d 2 0 ) and this pattern of squaring 8 modulo 2 0 continues (remember - n − 2 8 is a power of 2 ).
4 k ≡ 2 3 ( n − 1 8 ) ( m o d 2 0 ) ≡ 2 4 8 ( m o d 2 0 ) ≡ 2 8
⇒ : 4 k ≡ 2 6 ≡ 6 4 ≡ 1 4 ( m o d 2 5 )
8 8 = 4 ( 2 5 l + 1 4 ) = 1 0 0 l + 5 6 for some l ∈ Z .
Superb!
I got lucky hahaha I used a calculator and found that the last numbers are 2, 4, 6, 8 And the last second numbers are almost any number I tried 78 then 56 OMG ITS CORRECT
. Obviously for some . By Euler's Theorem, , since and this pattern of squaring modulo continues (remember - is a power of ). for som
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Denote by n x the tetration operation, that is, n x = n times x x x . . .
Lemma 1: x 8 ≡ 0 ( m o d 4 ) , x ≥ 1 .
Proof: Since 8 is a multiple of 4 , any arbitrary positive exponentiation of 8 will also be divisible by 4 according to the rules of modular arithmetic. Hence, the lemma is established and proved.
Then, our problem becomes:
Find the value of the following: 8 8 m o d 1 0 0 .
Note that g cd ( 8 , 1 0 0 ) = 1 . So, we can't use Euler's Theorem directly. Instead, we first find the residues of 8 8 modulo 2 5 and 4 .
Using Lemma 1 , we have 8 8 m o d 4 = 0 . Now, for modulo 2 5 , note that g cd ( 2 5 , 8 ) = 1 . So, we use Euler's theorem with ϕ ( 2 5 ) = 2 0 to get,
8 8 ≡ { 0 ( m o d 4 ) ( 8 7 8 m o d 2 0 ) ( m o d 2 5 )
Now, again, note that g cd ( 2 0 , 8 ) = 1 . So, we find the residues of 7 8 modulo 4 and 5 . As before, by Lemma 1 , we have 7 8 m o d 4 = 0 . Now, for modulo 5 , we use Fermat's Little Theorem and Lemma 1 to get,
7 8 ≡ { 0 ( m o d 4 ) ( 8 6 8 m o d 4 ) ≡ 8 0 ≡ 1 ( m o d 5 ) ⟹ 7 8 ≡ { 0 ( m o d 4 ) 1 ( m o d 5 )
Combine these results using Chinese Remainder theorem to get 7 8 m o d 2 0 = 1 6 . Now, using this value, our first congruence system becomes,
8 8 ≡ { 0 ( m o d 4 ) 8 1 6 ≡ ( 6 4 ) 8 ≡ 1 4 8 ≡ ( − 4 ) 4 ≡ 6 ( m o d 2 5 ) ⟹ 8 8 ≡ { 0 ( m o d 4 ) 6 ( m o d 2 5 )
Again, combine the results obtained using Chinese Remainder Theorem to get,
8 8 ≡ 5 6 ( m o d 1 0 0 )