Infinitely many capacitors

Calculus Level 5

n = 0 ( r n r n + 1 f ( x ) d x ) 1 = 1 C \large \sum_{n=0}^\infty \left(\int_{r_n}^{r_{n+1}} f(x) \, dx \right)^{-1} = \dfrac1C

Let r n r_n denote the n th n^\text{th} smallest non-negative root of f ( x ) = sin x f(x) = \sin\sqrt x , where r 0 = 0 {r_0}=0 . Find C C .

If you believe that the sum above diverges, write your answer as zero.


Image Credit: Capacitors - 12739s by Eric Schrader, Wikipedia .


The answer is 8.

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1 solution

Indre Dan
Mar 27, 2016

Possible Solution to this problem:

First of all, I wanted to determine the roots of the equation: sin x = 0 \sin\sqrt{x}=0

And we have:
sin x = 0 , x { sin 1 ( 0 ) + k π k Z } , x { k π k Z } \sin\sqrt{x}=0 , \sqrt{x} \in \left \{ \sin^{-1}(0) + k\pi | k\in \mathbb{Z} \right \} , \sqrt{x} \in \left \{ k\pi | k\in \mathbb{Z} \right \}
So we get:
x { ( k π ) 2 k Z } x \in \left \{ (k\pi)^2 | k\in \mathbb{Z} \right \} from this we get: r k = ( k π ) 2 , k Z r{_{k}} = (k\pi)^2,k \in \mathbb{Z}
Replacing k with 1,2,...,n,n+1 we get: r 0 = 0 , r 1 = π 2 , r 2 = ( 2 π ) 2 ) , . . . , r n = ( n π ) 2 , r n + 1 = [ ( n + 1 ) π ] 2 r{_{0}}=0,r{_{1}}=\pi^2,r{_{2}}=(2\pi)^2),...,r{_{n}}=(n\pi)^2,r{_{n+1}}=[(n+1)\pi]^2


The second step I did is resolving the integral after I determined: r n , r n + 1 r{_{n}},r{_{n+1}} :

r n r n + 1 f ( x ) d x = ( n π ) 2 [ ( n + 1 ) π ] 2 sin x d x = 2 ( n π ) 2 [ ( n + 1 ) π ] 2 x sin x 2 x d x \int_{r_{n}}^{r_{n+1}}{f(x)dx} = \int_{(n\pi)^2}^{[(n+1)\pi]^2}\sin\sqrt{x}dx = 2\int_{(n\pi)^2}^{[(n+1)\pi]^2}\sqrt{x}\frac{\sin\sqrt{x}}{2\sqrt{x}}dx Now we will make the following substitution:
x = t , 1 2 x d x = d t \sqrt{x}=t , \frac{1}{2\sqrt{x}}dx = dt for x = ( n π ) 2 , t = n π x=(n\pi)^2, t=n\pi and for x = [ ( n + 1 ) π ] 2 , t = ( n + 1 ) π x=[(n+1)\pi]^2, t=(n+1)\pi and we get:
2 n π ( n + 1 ) π t sin ( t ) d t = 2 n π ( n + 1 ) π t ( cos ( t ) ) d t = 2 t cos ( t ) n π ( n + 1 ) π + 2 n π ( n + 1 ) π cos ( t ) d t = 2\int_{n\pi}^{(n+1)\pi}t\sin(t)dt=2\int_{n\pi}^{(n+1)\pi}t(-\cos(t))'dt=-2t\cos(t) |_{n\pi}^{(n+1)\pi}+2\int_{n\pi}^{(n+1)\pi}\cos(t)dt=
= 2 ( n + 1 ) π cos ( ( n + 1 ) π ) + 2 n π cos ( n π ) + 2 sin ( t ) n π ( n + 1 ) π = 2 π ( n cos ( n π ) ( n + 1 ) π cos [ ( n + 1 ) π ] ) =-2(n+1)\pi \cos((n+1)\pi)+2n\pi \cos(n\pi)+2\sin(t)|_{n\pi}^{(n+1)\pi}=2\pi(n\cos(n\pi)-(n+1)\pi\cos[(n+1)\pi])

We also know that: c o s ( n π + π ) = cos ( n π ) c o s π sin ( n π ) sin π = cos ( n π ) cos(n\pi+\pi)=\cos(n\pi)cos\pi-\sin(n\pi)\sin\pi=-\cos(n\pi)
We get that: 2 π ( n cos ( n π ) ( n + 1 ) π cos [ ( n + 1 ) π ] ) = 2 π ( n cos ( n π ) + ( n + 1 ) cos ( n π ) ) = 2\pi(n\cos(n\pi)-(n+1)\pi\cos[(n+1)\pi])=2\pi(n\cos(n\pi)+(n+1)\cos(n\pi))=
= 2 π ( 2 n cos ( n π ) + cos ( n π ) ) = 2 π ( 2 n + 1 ) c o s ( n π ) =2\pi(2n\cos(n\pi)+\cos(n\pi))=2\pi(2n+1)cos(n\pi)

After getting this, we keep in mind that: cos ( n π ) = ( 1 ) n \cos(n\pi)=(-1)^n

Now we go back to the sum:

n = 0 ( r n r n + 1 f ( x ) d x ) 1 = n = 0 ( 2 π ( 2 n + 1 ) ( 1 ) n ) 1 = 1 2 π n = 0 ( 1 ) n 2 n + 1 \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}( \int_{r_{n}}^{r_{n+1}}f(x)dx )^{-1}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(2\pi(2n+1)(-1)^n)^{-1}=\frac{1}{2\pi} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}

And now the fun part:

Consider the sequence: S ( x ) = n = 0 ( 1 ) n 2 n + 1 x 2 n + 1 = S ( x ) = n = 0 ( 1 ) n x 2 n = 1 x 2 + x 4 . . . = 1 1 + x 2 S(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}x^{2n+1}=S'(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(-1)^nx^{2n}=1-x^2+x^4-...=\frac{1}{1+x^2} And so: S ( x ) = 1 1 + x 2 d x = arctan x + K S(x)=\int \frac{1}{1+x^2}dx = \arctan{x}+K S ( 0 ) = 0 , arctan 0 + K = 0 , K = 0 S(0)=0 , \arctan{0} + K=0, K=0

Going back to our first sum we replace x with 1, x = 1 x = 1 and we get that: 1 2 π n = 0 ( 1 ) n 2 n + 1 = 1 2 π arctan ( 1 ) = 1 2 π π 4 = 1 8 \frac{1}{2\pi}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}=\frac{1}{2\pi}\arctan(1)=\frac{1}{2\pi}\frac{\pi}{4}=\frac{1}{8}

Finally: 1 C = 1 8 = > C = 8 \frac{1}{C}=\frac{1}{8} => C=8

Wow, this solution is great! Honestly, I would have just recognized that the successive inverses of the areas bounded by the x x -axis and f ( x ) f(x) between two roots followed a form of Leibniz's π formula . This form can be reached by multiplying the entire Leibniz series by 1 2 π \frac { 1 }{ 2\pi } .

Thus, the answer can be reached as follows: 1 2 π ( π 4 ) = 1 8 = 1 C C = 8 \frac { 1 }{ 2\pi } \left( \frac { \pi }{ 4 } \right) =\frac { 1 }{ 8 } =\frac { 1 }{ C } \\ \therefore C=8

However, I recognize that you still used a similar approach, albeit more in detail, as the Taylor series for a r c t a n ( x ) arctan(x) is merely a generalization of the Leibniz series.

Jonas Katona - 5 years, 2 months ago

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Thank you very much, it was a good problem. You are really a good mathematician. Thank you.

Indre Dan - 5 years, 2 months ago

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You're very welcome. You are also a great mathematician yourself. Thanks for taking the time to post a solution!

Jonas Katona - 5 years, 2 months ago

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@Jonas Katona @Jonas Katona An AMAZING Problem!!!! Just one doubt.............could you please shed some light on the Title of the question???!! I can't figure it out........

Aaghaz Mahajan - 2 years, 9 months ago

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