L = x → 0 lim n = 1 ∑ ∞ r = 0 ∑ ∞ n + r ( − 1 ) r ( r n + r ) x n + r − 1
Find the value of ⌊ 1 0 0 0 0 L ⌋ .
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Nice little easy problem indeed, as Kartik observed.
I started with the substitution n + r = m . Now ∑ m > r ( − 1 ) r ( r m ) m x m − 1 = ∑ m = 1 ∞ ( ∑ r = 0 m − 1 ( − 1 ) r ( r m ) ) m x m − 1 = ∑ m = 1 ∞ m ( − x ) m − 1 = x ln ( x + 1 ) ; in the last step I'm using the Taylor series of ln ( x + 1 ) . The limit as x → 0 is 1.
Why makes things so complicated? For n + r − 1 = 0 , when x → 0 , x n + r − 1 → 0 . So we only need to consider when n = r − 1 = 0 which occurs when n = 1 , r = 0 . When x approaches 0 from the right hand side x n + r − 1 approaches 1 when n = 1 , r = 0 . Thus the series equals to 1 + 0 ( − 1 ) 0 ( 1 1 + 0 ) = 1 .
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Because summation?
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What do you mean?
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@Pi Han Goh – @Kenny Lau I know it's been two years, but it works because all the terms in the sums are always finite. You'd have to check if you had a case like zero divided by zero
Nice little easy problem - what I liked the most though is surely the solution. Very well written! That must have been quite a work. +1!
Awesome question and an equally awesome solution.Upvoted!
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L
= x → 0 lim n = 1 ∑ ∞ r = 0 ∑ ∞ n + r ( − 1 ) r ( r n + r ) x n + r − 1
= x → 0 lim x 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ x n r = 0 ∑ ∞ n + r ( − 1 ) r ( r n + r ) x r
= x → 0 lim x 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ x n r = 0 ∑ ∞ n ( − 1 ) r ( r n + r − 1 ) x r [See (1)]
= x → 0 lim x 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ n x n r = 0 ∑ ∞ ( r n + r − 1 ) ( − x ) r
= x → 0 lim x 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ n x n ( 1 + x ) n 1 [See (2)]
= x → 0 lim x 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ n 1 ( 1 + x ) n x n
= x → 0 lim x 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ n 1 ( 1 + x x ) n
= x → 0 lim x 1 ( − ln ( 1 − 1 + x x ) ) [See (3)]
= x → 0 lim x 1 ( − ln ( 1 + x 1 ) )
= x → 0 lim x 1 ln ( 1 + x )
= x → 0 lim ln ( 1 + x ) x 1 [See (4)]
= ln e
= 1
(1): n + r 1 ( r n + r )
= n ! r ! ( n + r ) ( n + r ) !
= n ! r ! ( n + r − 1 ) !
= n 1 ( n − 1 ) ! r ! ( n + r − 1 ) !
= n 1 ( r n + r − 1 )
(2): ( 1 − x ) − n ≡ r = 0 ∑ ∞ ( r n + r − 1 ) x r ( − 1 < x < 1 ), substituting x : − x .
This can be proven using induction.
For a non-induction but informal approach, consider 1 − x 1 = 1 − x 1 − x ∞ = 1 + x + x 2 + x 3 + ⋯ .
Then ( 1 − x ) n 1 = ( 1 + x + x 2 + x 3 + ⋯ ) n .
Consider the coefficient of x r in this infini-nomial (binomial, trinomial, ...) expansion.
This is equivalent to choosing a non-negative number from the first bracket, then one from the second, until the n-th bracket, and then adding them to r .
Consider dividing r stars by n − 1 bars instead, which is still equivalent.
There are in total n + r − 1 objects in which r are stars, hence the coefficient is ( r n + r − 1 ) .
See Combinations with Repetition for further information.
(3): ln ( 1 − x 1 ) = − ln ( 1 − x ) = n = 1 ∑ ∞ n x n .
Proof:
n = 1 ∑ ∞ n x n
= n = 1 ∑ ∞ ∫ 0 x x n − 1 d x
= ∫ 0 x n = 1 ∑ ∞ x n − 1 d x
= ∫ 0 x n = 0 ∑ ∞ x n d x
= ∫ 0 x 1 − x 1 d x [See (2)]
= [ ln ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 1 − x 1 ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ] 0 x
= ln ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 1 − x 1 ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣
(4): lim x → 0 ( 1 + x ) x 1 = e
Such is the definition of e .