Let S k , k = 1 , 2 , 3 , . . . . , 1 0 0 , denote the sum of infinite G.P. whose first term is k ! k − 1 and common ratio is k 1 . Then the value of 1 0 0 ! 1 0 0 2 + ∑ k = 1 1 0 0 ∣ ∣ ( k 2 − 3 k + 1 ) S k ∣ ∣ is:
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( k − 1 ) ! k 2 − 3 k + 1 = ( k − 1 ) ! ( k − 1 ) 2 − k
= ( k − 1 ) ! ( k − 1 ) 2 − k ! k 2
A d d i n g t i l l 1 0 0 w e g e t 1 0 0 ! − 1 0 0 2
So why here we are getting different answer i.e 0?
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Are you sure you took the modulus into account?
You just skipped the modulus and your terms got cancelled. Apply modulus and you will reach the correct answer.
The answer has been updated to 4.
Edit: The answer has been reverted to 3.
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this is JEE-2010 problem
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If you follow through with the above argument, you will obtain
1 0 1 ! 1 0 0 2 + ∣ − 1 ∣ + ∣ − 1 ∣ + ∣ 2 − 1 0 1 ! 1 0 0 2 ∣ = 4
Can you provide a link to the official solution? Regardless of what the official solution states, the actual answer is 4 and not 3. I believe that they have a typo which is not fixed.
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@Calvin Lin – You can consider Pranjal's post above. I agree with that. You added summation for k = 1 , but the term is 0 for it.
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@Mudit Bansal – Thanks. I now understand my error, and have reverted it back to 3. I've also edited the solution so that it is much clearer, and people can now understand what the various mistakes are.
Note: Please refrain from typing in all capital letters, as that constitutes shouting over the internet, and is considered extremely rude.
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@Calvin Lin – Ohh!!! really sorry for that.I actually have a habit of typing without looking at the screen and didn't notice that the caps lock is on. I've deleted those CAPITALIZED comments.
@Calvin Lin – Thank you for completing the proof. If I'd known that the other cases would cause so much confusion, I would have included it myself. Thanks again :)
For k = 1 , S k = 0 , and not ( k − 1 ) ! 1 . Therefore, the answer would be 3 .
P.S. I got this one right after correction! :p
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Oh I see, that's really tricky! I forgot about that when doing the algebra. My bad!
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@Calvin Lin – My bad as well.. :p
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@Pranjal Jain – how did youuu get this one wrong. this was discussed in the class,remember!!
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@Mudit Bansal – I have not mugged up problems. This one was 2 yrs old I suppose! After all I am not Sanyam.
what did you do to earlier correct solvers and shown solvers.
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Initially, those who answered 3 were marked correct, and were included in number of solvers. After first edit, who answered 4 were marked correct, so the number of solvers changed. After reverting it back, original number of solvers reverted.
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For k = 1 we get that
S k = k ! k − 1 × 1 − k 1 1 = ( k − 1 ) ! 1
For k = 1 , notice that the first term is 0, and hence the sum is S 1 = 0 . The reason why we do not get S 1 = ( 1 − 1 ) ! 1 is because we had to cancel out by k − 1 = 0 in the algebraic manipulation, which would not be allowed otherwise.
It is also fairly obvious that the question is an exercise in telescoping. So for now, we ignore the modulus in the given expression and work with:
( k − 1 ) ! k 2 − 3 k + 1 = ( k − 1 ) ! ( k − 1 ) 2 − k
Thus, the general term is:
( k − 2 ) ! k − 1 − ( k − 1 ) ! k
We can now telescope this quite easily. But it is now that the modulus comes into play:
k 2 − 3 k + 1 is negative for k = 1 and k = 2 . This can be taken into account by telescoping from k = 3 to k = 1 0 0 and adding the terms that remain.
As such, splitting it out, we obtain
1 0 0 ! 1 0 0 2 + ∣ 0 ∣ + ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ( 2 2 − 3 × 2 + 1 ) × 1 ! 1 ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ + ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ( 3 − 2 ) ! 3 − 1 − ( 1 0 0 − 1 ) ! 1 0 0 ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣
This evaluates out to 3.