A classical mechanics problem by Steven Chase

A 1 k g 1 kg bead slides down a friction-less wire in the shape of the following curve, where x x is the horizontal direction and y y is the vertical direction.

y = e x / 10 c o s ( x ) \large{y = e^{-x/10} cos(x)}

There is a uniform downward gravitational acceleration g = 10 m / s 2 g = 10 m/s^2 .

The bead starts at rest at ( x , y ) = ( 0 m , 1 m ) (x,y) = (0m,1m) .

What is the magnitude of the net force on the bead when it is at the peak (zero-slope) in the vicinity of x = 4 π x = 4 \pi ? Give your answer to 3 decimal places.


The answer is 4.125.

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1 solution

Steven Chase
Apr 23, 2017

The first derivative of the function is:

d y d x = e x / 10 [ s i n ( x ) 1 10 c o s ( x ) ] \large{\frac{dy}{dx} = e^{-x/10}\Big[-sin(x) - \frac{1}{10} cos(x)\Big]}

The second derivative of the function is:

d 2 y d x 2 = e x / 10 [ c o s ( x ) + 1 10 s i n ( x ) + 1 10 s i n ( x ) + 1 100 c o s ( x ) ] e x / 10 [ 1 5 s i n ( x ) 99 100 c o s ( x ) ] \large{\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = e^{-x/10}\Big[-cos(x) + \frac{1}{10} sin(x) + \frac{1}{10}sin(x) + \frac{1}{100}cos(x)\Big] \\ e^{-x/10}\Big[\frac{1}{5} sin(x) - \frac{99}{100}cos(x)\Big]}

Determine where the derivative equals zero:

s i n ( x ) 1 10 c o s ( x ) = 0 x = a t a n ( 1 10 ) ± 2 π n \large{-sin(x) - \frac{1}{10} cos(x) = 0 \implies x = atan(-\frac{1}{10}) \pm 2\pi n}

The x x -coordinate of the peak near x = 4 π x = 4 \pi is:

x p = a t a n ( 1 10 ) + 4 π \large{x_p = atan(-\frac{1}{10}) + 4\pi}

In general, there may be both normal and tangential forces at this point. We can rule out the presence of a tangential force using the following argument (note that the velocity is purely horizontal at the peak):

K i n e t i c E n e r g y = E = 1 2 m v 2 = m g ( 1 y ) d E d t = m g d y d t = 0 ( f o r x = x p ) d E d t = d E d v d v d t = m v d v d t = 0 d v d t = 0 F t a n g e n t i a l = 0 \large{Kinetic \, Energy = E = \frac{1}{2}m v^2 = mg(1 - y) \\ \frac{dE}{dt} = -mg \frac{dy}{dt} = 0 (for \, x = x_p) \\ \frac{dE}{dt} = \frac{dE}{dv} \frac{dv}{dt} = mv \frac{dv}{dt} = 0 \implies \frac{dv}{dt} = 0 \implies F_{tangential} = 0 }

So the net force is equal to the normal force at the peak. We can use the familiar equation:

F n o r m a l = m v 2 R \large{F_{normal} = m \frac{v^2}{R}}

Except that here, R R is the radius of curvature at that point. The general formula is given below (the apostrophes denote derivatives):

R c u r v a t u r e = ( 1 + y 2 ) 3 / 2 y \large{R_{curvature} = \Big|\frac{(1+y'^2)^{3/2}}{y''}\Big|}

Since the first derivative is zero, this reduces to:

R c u r v a t u r e = 1 y \large{R_{curvature} = \Big|\frac{1}{y''}\Big|}

The normal force is then:

F n o r m a l = m v 2 y = 2 m g ( 1 y ) y \large{F_{normal} = m v^2 |y''| = 2mg(1-y)|y''|}

Using the above expressions for y y and y y'' and plugging in numbers gives F n o r m a l = F t o t a l 4.125 F_{normal} = F_{total} \approx \boxed{4.125} . I also confirmed this result by numerically differentiating the velocity.

I don't think F(normal)=(m.v^2)/R

Shivansh Kaul - 3 years, 11 months ago

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Why not?...................

Steven Chase - 3 years, 11 months ago

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That is the force experienced by the bead; normal reaction also balances the weight of the bead.

Shivansh Kaul - 3 years, 11 months ago

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@Shivansh Kaul I think my choice of naming convention was unfortunate. The problem is looking for the total force, rather than the normal reaction from the wire. Since the total force happens to be in the normal direction at that point, I sort of got away with calling it F_normal.

Steven Chase - 3 years, 11 months ago

i did the same thing why i got wrong answer. it is not clear to me.

Srikanth Tupurani - 1 year, 9 months ago

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