∫ 0 2 π tan x d x
Evaluate this integral.
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This is exactly the simplest method I've seen.
How did you figure out that cos(x)sin(x) = (1-u^2)/2?
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(sin x - cos x)^2 =1 - 2sinxcosx 1-u^2= 2sinx cosx thus (1-u^2)\2=sinxcosx
This is a nice method. I solved with a different method.
very simple, very effective method
∫ 0 2 1 π tan x d x = ∫ 0 2 1 π sin 2 1 x cos − 2 1 x d x = 2 1 B ( 4 3 , 4 1 ) = 2 1 Γ ( 4 3 ) Γ ( 4 1 ) = 2 1 π c o s e c 4 1 π = 2 π
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Very nice succinct answer. Here's a much less impressive Pythonic solution
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Using substitution
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None of this is a real solving for the integral... I can also use any software calculator, Mathematica, Symbolab, etc... and with this I'm not solving the integral. What's the point?
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I guess losing the WC soccer wasn't enough, you want to lose here as well? Where's your solution?
May I ask what the B and the capital gamma stand for?
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The beta and gamma functions respectively. The Gamma function is defined by Γ ( x ) = ∫ 0 ∞ t x − 1 e − t d t x > 0 and is an extension of the factorial function, since Γ ( n + 1 ) = n ! n = 0 , 1 , 2 , 3 , . . . (the fact that Γ ( 1 ) = 1 is one important reason why we put 0 ! = 1 ). The beta function is B ( a , b ) = Γ ( a + b ) Γ ( a ) Γ ( b )
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Sir can you explain what is 't' in the Gamma function?
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@Aman Thegreat – It’s just the dummy variable I am using to integrate with.
After preforming the substitution z = tan x the integral becomes ∫ 0 ∞ 1 + z 4 2 z 2 d z . Since f ( z ) = 1 + z 4 z 2 is an even function, ∫ 0 ∞ 1 + z 4 2 z 2 d z = ∫ − ∞ ∞ 1 + z 4 z 2 d z . Now turning to complex analysis ∫ − ∞ ∞ 1 + z 4 z 2 d z → ∮ Γ 1 + z 4 z 2 d z as R → ∞ where Γ is taken to be the counterclockwise path along the interval [ − R , R ] on the real axis and the semi-circle on the upper half plane centered at the origin with radius R . This is because f ( z ) is a meromorphic function on the complex plane and lim ∣ z ∣ → ∞ π z f ( z ) = 0 (Therefore the integral vanishes on the semi-circle part of the path due to the M L Inequality). Now we can use the residue theorem and L'Hopital's rule to find that ∮ Γ 1 + z 4 z 2 d z = 2 π i ∑ i r e s ( f ( z ) , z i ) = 2 π i ( lim z → e 4 π i ( z − e 4 π i ) f ( z ) + lim z → e 4 3 π i ( z − e 4 3 π i ) f ( z ) ) = 2 π ≈ 2 . 2 2 1 . (The points z i are the poles of f ( z ) on the upper half of the complex plane).
The substitution z = u − 1 shows that ∫ 0 ∞ 1 + z 4 2 z 2 d z = ∫ 0 ∞ 1 + z 4 2 d z and hence ∫ 0 ∞ 1 + z 4 2 z 2 = 2 1 ∫ 0 ∞ z 4 + 1 2 ( z 2 + 1 ) d z = 2 1 ∫ 0 ∞ ( z 2 + 2 z + 1 1 + z 2 − 2 z + 1 1 ) d z = 2 1 [ tan − 1 ( 2 z + 1 ) + tan − 1 ( 2 u − 1 ) ] 0 ∞ = 2 π if you want a derivation without using contour integration.
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Neat! You have a u in there that should be a z .
∫ 0 ∞ 1 + t 4 2 t 2 d t = ∫ 0 ∞ 1 + t 4 2 d t (taking t=1/x)
∫ 0 ∞ 1 + t 4 1 + t 2 d t (now dividing numerator and denominator by t² and taking x=t-1/t)
∫ − ∞ ∞ x ² + 2 1 d x = 2 π
Used wolfram alpha free widget for definite integral to get the answer.
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Let I = ∫ 0 2 π tan x d x
We make the substitution u = 2 π − x , which gives I = ∫ 0 2 π cot x d x
Adding the two integrals together, we have
2 I = ∫ 0 2 π tan x + cot x d x = ∫ 0 2 π cos x sin x + sin x cos x d x = ∫ 0 2 π cos x sin x sin x + cos x d x
Now we make the substitution u = sin x − cos x . We see that d u = ( sin x + cos x ) d x and cos x sin x = 2 1 − u 2 . Therefore,
∫ 0 2 π cos x sin x sin x + cos x d x = ∫ − 1 1 1 − u 2 2 d u = 2 arcsin ( u ) ∣ ∣ − 1 1 = π 2
Then 2 I = π 2 ⟹ I = 2 π 2 .