A Game Of Kings

All four Kings from a deck of cards are placed face down on a table in a random order. You select two of them, and if both are the same color (red or black), then you win.

What’s your chance of winning?

1 4 \frac14 1 3 \frac13 1 2 \frac12 2 3 \frac23

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13 solutions

Denton Young
Sep 1, 2018

There are two red and two black Kings on the table. The first card you select is irrelevant. If it is a black King, then of the remaining 3 cards, only one is black, and since your selection is random, you have a 1/3 chance of winning.

If the King you selected is red, there is only one red King left of the other three cards, and the same argument applies.

What if you pick up both cards at once? isn't it 1/2.

WinterWolf Wolfie - 2 years, 9 months ago

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Since time has no manner in this game it is also irrelevant if you pick two card simultanously or one after another. The principle is the most relevant thing that Denton Young has described.

Wojciech 1/137 - 2 years, 9 months ago

I think same WinterWolf. If u pick 2 cards simultaneously then possible cards are RR, RB, BR, BB. So probability will be 1/2.

Akela Chana - 2 years, 9 months ago

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There are 6 possible combinations.

[KD, KH], [KD, KC], [KD, KS], [KH, KC], [KH, KS], [KC, KS]

Two of them are winning: [KD, KH], [KC, KS]

2/6 = 1/3

Denton Young - 2 years, 9 months ago

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@Denton Young Thank you sir, I got it. And thanks for such interesting question.

Akela Chana - 2 years, 9 months ago

The possible pairs are HD, HC, HS, DC, DS, CS. Only hearts and diamonds, and clubs and spades, are the same colour, so 2/6 pairs will result in victory.

Adrian Brekke - 2 years, 9 months ago

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@Adrian Brekke Thank you sir. I got it.

Akela Chana - 2 years, 9 months ago

If we use your combinations, they will not have the same probabilities. We have to take into account all the four suits:

RR - HD, DH

RB - HC, HS, DC, DS

BR - CH, CD, SH, SD

BB - CS, SC

So the probability of getting RR is 1/6, the probability of getting RR or BB is 1/3. There are more combinations with different colours than with the same colours.

The probability 1/2 would be valid if the number of cards to select from is infinite.

Václav Brožík - 2 years, 8 months ago

It makes sense, I got it wrong because I performed it in my brain by picking up both of the cards Simultaneously and only Simultaneously

Jessie Velasquez - 2 years, 9 months ago

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The Question didn't specify if you took them simultaneously or one by one.

charles-esteban vialle - 2 years, 8 months ago

Well is it really perfectly random, since the deck of cards has (after the first selection) now one black or red card less

Paul Kopold - 2 years, 9 months ago

This mirrors my train of thoughts pretty well. "Without loss of generality we can assume the first card is black. The chance of drawing a second black card is 1/3. This means that we have a 1/3 chance of winning."

Simeon Widdis - 2 years, 8 months ago
Chris H
Sep 3, 2018

There are ( 4 2 ) = 6 {4 \choose 2}=6 possible selections, two of which are winning. This leaves 1 3 \frac{1}{3} as the answer.

Only 1 selection out of 6 is correct so 1/6

Alan Talati - 2 years, 9 months ago

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You could have two reds or two blacks, though, so two selections are correct, right? Please correct me if I'm missing something.

Chris H - 2 years, 9 months ago

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You are correct... 2/6 beacaue RR and BB both win

Gary Tugan - 2 years, 9 months ago
Mario Diaz
Sep 9, 2018

Doesn't matter which colour you choose first, of the other three cards remaining there will be two of the opposite color, and 1 of the same colour. Which leaves you with a probability of a 1/3

There are 4 possible combinations Black + Black; Red + Red; Black then Red; Red then Black. 2 out of the 4 combinations are a same colour pair. 2/4 is 1/2. Why is this the wrong solution?

Robert Linton - 2 years, 9 months ago

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There are actually 6 possibilities. (KH, KD) and (KS, KC) are the two winning ones, and the other 4 are (KH, KS), (KH, KC), (KD, KS) and (KD, KC).

Denton Young - 2 years, 9 months ago

Let say my first card was red, the probability that the second one will be red is 1 out of 3. The same goes if my first card is black.

Nikki San Pedro - 2 years, 9 months ago

Think of Chris H solution.

Jean Michel Henry - 2 years, 9 months ago
Kenzo Takahashi
Sep 10, 2018

Let's say the cards are B♤, B♧, R♡, R◇. The winning situation is drawing 2 cards with the same color (B or R). Let's calculate the possibility of picking our first card. Can we pick our first card? Yes, we can, so it's 100% of possibility, that is to say, 1. What is the possibility of drawing the same color as the second card? 3 cards left on the table in which just one card has the same color as one we have in our hand. 1 card is the right one out of 3 cards, so it's 1/3. Now just multiply those two results: 1×1/3=1/3 In a second way (for those who thought the answer should have been 1/6); Let's calculate the possibility of drawing, for example, 2 B cards: Let's draw our first card: 2 Bs and 2 Rs on the table, so 2 vs. 2, 50/50 of possibility, which gives us the result of 1/2. Now 3 cards remain on the table, and we are going to pick the other B from among other 2 Rs. 1/3 of possibility. Multiply those two results: 1/2×1/3=1/6 Is that correct? Yes, actually it is correct unless you are looking also for B possibility. What about R? We still win if we draw 2 Rs. So just double the possibility(1/6×2): it gives us 1/3. Have a great day!

Krishna Karthik
Sep 10, 2018

Think about it this way: the first card you choose; now does it really matter? No it doesn’t, because the second card is what determines whether you get the same card or not. For example, if i pick any card, there are three cards left. Only 1 of those three cards leads to the favourable outcome. Since the first card is irrelevant, and whichever card you pick first there is only one in three cards that could give you your favourable outcome, the probability is 1 3 \frac{1}{3}

Paul Tan
Sep 9, 2018

Once you pick one, the probability of picking the same color is 1/3 (no matter which card you choose)

Avram Victor
Sep 13, 2018

There are 6 cases and you can win in two of them.

Since the probability P= t o t a l c a s e s v a l i d c a s e s \frac{total cases}{valid cases} , we can calculate P= 2 6 \frac{2}{6} = 1 3 \frac{1}{3}

Debajyoti Guha
Sep 12, 2018

Obtaining both cards of the same colour on consecutive turns , doesn't put any binding to what colour you pick up in the first turn. Irrespective of the first turn being black or red, all you need to know is the probability that the next card will also be black or red respectively. Suppose you get red first; there are 3 more cards left out of which only one is red. That makes the probability of getting two consecutive red as 1/3. Similar argument if you get black first.

Patrick Sommer
Sep 12, 2018

This particular scenario is a rather simple one, as the first decision you make is of no consequence whatsoever. No matter which card you pick first, it will always result in 3 remaining cards. 1 of them is the same color, while the other 2 are the different one - a ratio of 1 out of 3 (1/3).

There is a more elaborate way that will work on any probability calculation, but it's best explained in a visual display, rather than only in words. Sadly it doesn't seem to be possible to add any sort of image here, so that's out of option... Oh well, there's always Google, right?

Jam M
Sep 11, 2018

Once the first card is selected, there are three cards left. Two of these remaining cards have a different color from the one selected, and only one has the same color. Hence, the probability that the second selected card has the same color as the first is 1 3 \dfrac{1}{3} .

Josh Lagerwey
Sep 11, 2018

One option is red and red, one is black then black.

For the red & red scenario, the probability looks like this: you have a 2/4 (1/2) chance of choosing a red, because half the cards are red. One that card is taken from the mix, the chance of getting a second red is 1/3 (there's only one red within the remaining selection of 3 cards).

These probabilities are multiplied, because for this to be achieved we need BOTH occur. Multiplication is used for these "and" requirements.

The result is 1/6.

Next, the black & black scenario, the probability is exactly the same.

Because we don't mind if we get red&red OR black&black, we ADD these probabilities together. Addition is used for the "or" requirements. Our result is 1/6 + 1/6 = 2/6 = 1/3.

Daniel Pfeifle
Sep 14, 2018

There are 2 cards of both red and black on the table, for a total of 4 cards. It doesn't matter what the first card you pick is, because all we care about is whether the colors match. now there are 3 cards left in play, 1 of the color you just picked, 2 of the other color, so you have a 1 in 3 chance of picking the right card.

Thomas Sutcliffe
Sep 10, 2018

There are six potential outcomes - both red kings, both black kings, king of spades and king of hearts, king of spades and king of diamonds, king of hearts and king of clubs and king of diamonds and king of clubs. Four outcomes out of six do not yield a match and two do, so the possibility of drawing a matching pair is 2/6 = 1/3. How have almost 40% solvers contrived to bungle this one?

Because conditional probability is hard if you don't keep a very clear mind. One of the greatest mathematicians of his time, Jean le Rond d'Alembert, thought that the chance of getting at least one head if you flip a fair coin twice was 2/3. His reasoning was that there were 3 cases: you get a head on the first throw, you get a head on the second throw, or you get no heads at all, and in 2 of those cases you get at least one head.

Denton Young - 2 years, 9 months ago

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