A More Difficult Number-Plus-Reciprocal Problem

Algebra Level 2

x 2048 + 1 x 2048 + x 2047 1 x 2047 + 1 x 2049 x 2049 + 2 x^{2048}+\frac{1}{x^{2048}}+x^{2047}-\frac{1}{x^{2047}}+\frac{1}{x^{2049}}-x^{2049}+2

Find the value of the above expression if we know that x + 1 x = 2 x + \frac 1 x = 2 .


The answer is 4.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

17 solutions

Jubayer Nirjhor
Jan 27, 2014

I didn't realize what's so difficult here! :/ Am I missing something?

x + 1 x = 2 x 2 2 x + 1 = 0 ( x 1 ) 2 = 0 x = 1 x+\dfrac{1}{x}=2 ~~~\Longrightarrow ~ x^2-2x+1=0 ~~~\Longrightarrow ~ (x-1)^2=0 ~~~\Longrightarrow ~ x=1

1 + 1 + 1 1 + 1 1 + 2 = 4 \therefore~~~ 1+1+1-1+1-1+2=\fbox{4}

And how do we apply the fact that 2048 = 2 11 2048=2^{11} ?

It's to mislead you.

Finn Hulse - 7 years, 4 months ago

And how do we apply the fact that 2048 = 2 11 2048=2^{11} ?

You don't.

Ahmad Naufal Hakim - 7 years, 1 month ago

Log in to reply

It is just stating the obvious not necessarily important.

Roman Frago - 6 years, 5 months ago

This how i solved it too.. :) Don't know why all others are making it seem as a great question.

Vishal Sharma - 7 years, 2 months ago

Log in to reply

i also did like this, the " fact that 2 11 = 2048 2^{11}=2048 " is not used anywhere....

Mrigank Krishan - 6 years, 5 months ago

TROLL THE OTHER SOLUTION MAKERS

Anirudha Nayak - 7 years, 4 months ago

How did you get to

X^2-2x+1=0 in conclusion? ! Sry I'm a young beginner Don't know whether is it silly to ask but i don't know how you get to that ☺

Elina Moradi - 4 years, 12 months ago

Log in to reply

x + 1/x = 2 Multiply both sides by x x^2 + 1 = 2x Subtract 2x from both sides x^2 - 2x + 1 = 0

Chris Barritt - 4 years, 10 months ago

yes...I too am curious about how or why would we use 2048 = 2 11 2^{11} ?

Upendra Singh - 7 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

See my solution

Taehyung Kim - 7 years, 4 months ago

Even I did the same!

Krishna Kumar - 6 years, 5 months ago

A no plus its resiprocal =2 there is one university true that each bo should be 1 then according to this 1+1+1-1+1-1 is simply 2

Ravi Goyal - 4 years, 4 months ago

(x-1)^2 = 1 therefore x = 1 or -1

Rony Joarder - 6 years, 5 months ago

Log in to reply

(x-1)*(x-1)=0 so x ll b ( +1 ) only

Kumaresh Mishra - 6 years, 5 months ago

Its wrong ...!!! Value of x doesn't even satisfying the eqn. It will be (x - 1)^2 = 0.

Amit Agrawal - 6 years, 5 months ago
Taehyung Kim
Jan 27, 2014

Since we don't exactly see how in the world we would get to these exponents, we start small. Squaring both sides of x + 1 x = 2 x + \frac 1x = 2 gives x 2 + 2 + 1 x 2 = 4 x 2 + 1 x 2 = 2. x^2 + 2 + \frac{1}{x^2} = 4 \implies x^2 + \frac 1 {x^2} = 2 . Then we see that for any $n$, x n + 1 x n = 2 x 2 n + 1 x 2 n x^n+ \frac 1{x^n} = 2 \implies x^{2n} + \frac 1{x^{2n}} . So we see that x 2048 + 1 x 2048 = 2 x^{2048} + \frac{1}{x^{2048}} = 2 . Now we have these other terms to deal with. Well, we can use ( x + 1 x ) ( x 2048 + 1 x 2048 ) \left( x + \frac 1x \right) \left(x^{2048} + \frac{1}{x^{2048}} \right) However, this would not give us the negative terms that we need. So we need to find x 1 x x - \frac 1x . Since x 2 + 1 x 2 = 2 x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2}= 2 , we have x 2 2 + 1 x 2 = 0 ( x 1 x ) 2 = 0 x 1 x = 0. x^2 -2 + \frac{1}{x^2} = 0 \implies \left(x - \frac{1}{x}\right) ^2 = 0 \implies x - \frac 1x = 0. So this eliminates ( x 1 x ) ( x 2048 + 1 x 2048 ) \left( x - \frac 1x \right) \left(x^{2048} + \frac{1}{x^{2048}} \right) and we are left with 2 + 2 = 4 2 + 2 =4 .

I have found a rather interesting solution involving complex numbers:

Using De Moivre's theorem, if x is a complex number we can see that x n + 1 x n = 2 cos n θ x^{n} + \frac{1}{x^{n}} = 2\cos n\theta and x n 1 x n = 2 i sin n θ x^{n} - \frac{1}{ x^{n}} = 2i\sin n\theta .

So in the given formula, n is equal to 1, which allows us to change the initial equation into x + 1 x = 2 cos 1 θ = 2 x + \frac{1}{ x} = 2\cos 1\cdot\theta = 2

This allows us to solve for θ \theta to get θ \theta = 0.

Restating the initial formulas with this value of θ \theta : x n + 1 x n = 2 cos n 0 x n + 1 x n = 2 x^{n} + \frac{1}{ x^{n}} = 2\cos n\cdot0 \rightarrow x^{n} + \frac{1}{ x^{n}} = 2 x n 1 x n = 2 i sin n 0 x n 1 x n = 0 x^{n} - \frac{1}{ x^{n}} = 2i\sin n\cdot0 \rightarrow x^{n} - \frac{1}{ x^{n}} = 0

So finally, x 2048 + 1 x 2048 + x 2047 1 x 2047 + x 2049 1 x 2049 + 2 2 + 0 + 0 + 2 = 4 x^{2048} + \frac{1}{ x^{2048}} + x^{2047} - \frac{1}{ x^{2047}} + x^{2049} - \frac{1}{ x^{2049}} + 2 \Rightarrow 2 + 0 + 0 + 2 = \boxed{4}

Alaa Qarooni - 7 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

very nicely solve but you solve directly without subtituting n=1 by 2cosn@=2 => cosn@=1 => n@=0 => => @=0

Dawood Shah - 6 years, 4 months ago

You have not proved that x n + 1 x n = 2 x^n+\frac{1}{x^n}=2 for all n n ; you have only proved this for n n that are powers of 2 (that can be obtained by squaring x 2 + 1 x 2 = 2 x^2+\frac{1}{x^2}=2 .

minimario minimario - 7 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

Oops. Fail. I meant to say power of 2

Taehyung Kim - 7 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

It is creary true that x n + 1 x n = 2 x^n+\frac{1}{x^n}=2 for all n n (because x = 1 x=1 ) Can you prove this fact? (without using the fact that x = 1 x=1 )

minimario minimario - 7 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

@Minimario Minimario What do you mean? This statement?

( x + 1 x = 2 ) ( n N x n + 1 x n = 2 ) (x + \frac{1}{x} = 2) \Rightarrow (\forall n \in \mathbb N \ \ \ x^n + \frac{1}{x^n} = 2)

without inspect the values of x x to be ± 1 \pm 1 , right?

Ok.

You can prove it by induction that for every non negative integer k k you have

x k + 1 x k = 2 x^k + \frac{1}{x^k} = 2

provided that the equality holds for k = 1 k = 1 .

Base of induction is trivial. In fact equality holds for k = 0 k = 0 and k = 1 k = 1 .

Suppose now n 1 n \geq 1 and that the equality holds for every k n k \leq n .

We prove that it also holds for n + 1 n + 1 .

x n + 1 + 1 x n + 1 = x^{n+1} + \frac{1}{x^{n+1}} =

x x n + 1 x 1 x n = x \cdot x^n + \frac{1}{x} \cdot \frac{1}{x^n} =

x ( x n + 1 x n 1 x n ) + 1 x ( 1 x n + x n x n ) x \cdot ( x^n + \frac{1}{x^n} - \frac{1}{x^n}) + \frac{1}{x} \cdot ( \frac{1}{x^n} + x^n - x^n)

= x ( 2 1 x n ) + 1 x ( 2 x n ) = = x (2 - \frac{1}{x^n}) + \frac{1}{x}\cdot (2 - x^n) =

2 x 1 x n 1 + 2 1 x x n 1 = 2 ( 1 + 1 x ) ( x n 1 + 1 x n 1 ) = 4 2 = 2 2x - \frac{1}{x^{n-1}} + 2\frac{1}{x} - x^{n-1} = 2(1 + \frac{1}{x}) - (x^{n-1} + \frac{1}{x^{n-1}}) = 4 - 2 = 2 .

So by induction we get the proof of our statement.

It is also clear, by reciprocal simmetry, that it is also true for every k k negative integer.

Andrea Palma - 6 years, 2 months ago

@Minimario Minimario x = 1 is unique solution... this is trivial to prove. Edit: Stahp editting

Taehyung Kim - 7 years, 4 months ago

x^n+1/x^n=2 holds only for x=1

Abhishek Alva - 6 years, 5 months ago

The only solution till now which doesn't assume x to be real. Nice..

Nishant Rai - 7 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

This was the algebraic manipulation solution I meant. You can see my solution that deals with the case if x x is not real.

Yong See Foo - 7 years, 4 months ago
Daniel Liu
Jan 27, 2014

Note that x = 1 x=1 fits the original equation; therefore we can see that the expression we want to find the value of is simply 1 + 1 + 1 1 + 1 1 + 2 = 4 1+1+1-1+1-1+2=\boxed{4} and we are done.

Can you prove this value is unique?

minimario minimario - 7 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

It's the only real solution because taking the derivative of the function yields extrema at x = ± 1 , x=±1, but the function f ( x ) = x + 1 x f(x)=x+\frac{1}{x} is negative for all x ( , 0 ) . x\in(-\infty,0). On the other side of the y -axis, y\text{-axis,} the function is always positive and changes from decreasing to increasing at 1 1 point: ( 1 , 0 ) . (1,0). Therefore, x = 1 x=1 is the only real \textit{real} solution.

Trevor B. - 7 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

There isn't any unreal solution either, so you might want to try that?

Yong See Foo - 7 years, 4 months ago

From the inequality x + 1 x 2 x + \frac{1}{x} \geq 2 if x > 0 x > 0 .

You can prove by AM-GM that

x + 1 x 2 x 1 x = 2 x + \frac{1}{x} \geq 2\sqrt{x \cdot \frac{1}{x} } = 2 .

Equality holds if x = 1 x x = \frac{1}{x} .

Therefore, equality holds if x 2 = 1 x = 1 x^{2} = 1 \to \boxed{x = 1} .

I'm feeling mad because I clicked see solution by accident. >:(

Samuraiwarm Tsunayoshi - 7 years, 4 months ago

x 2 2 x + 1 = 0 x^{2}-2x+1=0 , or x = 1 x=1

Sam Thompson - 7 years, 4 months ago

used it LOL

Anirudha Nayak - 7 years, 4 months ago

Yep, that's all I did :)

Sam Thompson - 7 years, 4 months ago
Yong See Foo
Jan 27, 2014

There is a solution by algebraic manipulation, but a more straightforward way is to solve the given hypothesis. As x = 0 x=0 does not solve the equation, we may assume that x 0 x\neq 0 , and therefore multiply the equation by x x , solving the quadratic inequality gives x = 1 x=1 . Substitute this into the expression and get the answer 4 \textbf{4} . Alternatively use the inequality x + 1 x 2 x+\frac{1}{x}\geq 2 which is true for nonzero real x x , where equality occurs if and only if x = 1 x=1 to get x = 1 x=1 . In this case there is a gap that x x might be imaginary (not real). Assume so. Since 1 x = x x \frac{1}{x}=\frac{\overline{x}}{|x|} , for x + 1 x x+\frac{1}{x} to have a zero imaginary part, x = 1 |x|=1 , but then x 1 x\neq 1 by our assumption, x x 's real part is strictly less than 1 1 , which makes x + 1 x x+\frac{1}{x} to have a real part of strictly less than 2 2 , contradiction.

Actually there is no need to prove x x is nonzero.

Yong See Foo - 7 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

Why not?

Star Light - 7 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

Well because I didn't divide anything by 0?

Yong See Foo - 7 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

@Yong See Foo Confused karne ko diya 2^11=2048.

Ketan Agrawal - 5 years, 9 months ago
Debjit Chatterjee
Sep 12, 2016

Since we have : x + 1/x =2 , and in the equation we have two odd exponential value and one even, we can find the value of x^2 + 1/(x^2) for even and also x^3 + 1/(x^3) for the odd one, by this we can find the total value. Even value is 0 and odd value is 2

Kenneth Sheedy
Nov 20, 2016

X+1/x=2 factor x(1+1/1)=2 simplify x(2)=2 isolate (x) x=2/2 solution x=1 plug in x=1 to original equation to get, 1+1+1-1+1-1+2=4

X^2-2x-1=0 Using quadratic. X=1 Substitute. 1+1/1+1-1/1+1/1-1+2=4

Ankit Mittal
Dec 22, 2016

If you rearrange the basic information given we know: x + 1/x = 2 So: x^2 + 1 = 2x x^2 - 2x + 1 = 0 ( x - 1 )( x - 1) = 0 Therefore: x = 1 Now we can apply this to the question: The first section gives 1 + 1/1 which is 2 The next section gives: 1-1 which is 0 The third section gives: 1-1 which is also 0 ( similar to second section) The last section is 2 If we add all the sections we get ; 2 + 0 + 0 + 2 which gives 4

Hailey Martz
Oct 5, 2016

1 to the power of any whole number is 1. All you are doing is adding and subtracting 1.

Ankush Thakur
Jul 30, 2016

Let x=1, hence question solved

Sarthak Sharma
Jul 28, 2016

So firstly I differentiated x+1/x = 2 and got x^2=1 , so x =+-1 , but - 1dont satisfy the equation x+1/x=2 so I get x=+1 , now put x=1 in long equation to get that reduced to the value 4 .

Maris Aigbe
Jun 19, 2016

x+(1/x)=2 => x(1+(1/1)=2 => 2x=2 => x=1 1+1+1-1+1-1+2 = 4

Kyle Buck
Jun 15, 2016

Looking at reciprocals each denom and numer can be canceled bc of its properties in the problem. Leaving it equaling 2 and adding 2 at the end to equal 4

Sarav Noor Singh
May 20, 2016

You literally multiply the equation by x solve for x and then plug in the value into the expression

Jacob Obrman
May 19, 2016

Wow, so many complicated ways when all I did was switching + to - and - to +... Then just apply -x-1/x = -2 and you can even calculate it in your head : )

Pawan Pal
Mar 2, 2016

That wasnt difficult . Everyone would have solved that in first attempt !!

Hamza Dhaoui
Dec 4, 2015

x+1/x=2 has only one solution . x=1. 1^n is always 1 . And the solution is pretty obvious :4

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...