If ∫ 1 ∞ ( x ln x ) 2 0 1 4 d x can be expressed as q r p ! , where p , q , r are integers, find p + q + r .
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Nice solution. You could have generalised as ∫ 1 ∞ ( x ln x ) n d x = ( n − 1 ) n + 1 n !
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Yeah. Just that you missed the power
n
and the
d
x
...lol.
Just Kidding
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Edited.
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@Jatin Yadav
–
Btw can you please post the solution for your previous problem on gravitation.
I tried it by finding the
center of gravity
and then applying rotation. What went wrong? plz reply
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@Anish Puthuraya – Sure, (did you mean "A rod so long" ?)
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@Jatin Yadav – Yes.
How did you generalize the equation? I thought the gamma function substitution only worked from 0 to infinity, could you post your method?
Actually, you don't need to use IBP since ∫ 0 ∞ t 2 0 1 4 e − 2 0 1 3 t d t ( 1 ) can be solved by using substitution. Let u = 2 0 1 3 t and t = 2 0 1 3 u , then d t = 2 0 1 3 d u . Substitute these to ( 1 ) , yield ∫ 0 ∞ t 2 0 1 4 e − 2 0 1 3 t d t = ∫ 0 ∞ ( 2 0 1 3 u ) 2 0 1 4 e − u 2 0 1 3 d u = 2 0 1 3 2 0 1 5 1 ∫ 0 ∞ u 2 0 1 4 e − u d u The last form integral is known as gamma function , that is Γ ( n ) = ∫ 0 ∞ x n − 1 e − x d x = ( n − 1 ) ! , for n positive integer . Thus, 2 0 1 3 2 0 1 5 1 ∫ 0 ∞ u 2 0 1 4 e − u d u = 2 0 1 3 2 0 1 5 2 0 1 4 ! . # Q . E . D . #
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Yeah, I did not know about the gamma function.. btw, how do you write QED that way?
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My comment doesn't mean to insult you Anish, but if you feel bad about that, I apologize to you my friend. :) You may learn gamma function by the link I attached on my comment. One way of many to derive gamma function is using IBP like you did, so basically you've done a good work. (y) About Q.E.D., I just you this simple TeX code: \text{# }\mathbb{Q}.\mathbb{E}.\mathbb{D}.\text{#}
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@Tunk-Fey Ariawan
–
I didn't feel bad my friend...I just said that I didn't know about it, thats all...No need to apologize.
And thanks for the code.
Did the same way!
After substitution, the integral that you get is a standard integral known as Gamma function .
We write f ( α ) = ∫ 1 ∞ x α d x = α + 1 − 1 f o r α < − 1
Differentiating both sides with respect to α
2014 times we get :
( α + 1 ) 2 0 1 5 − ( 2 0 1 4 ) ! = ∫ 1 ∞ l n 2 0 1 4 ( x ) x α d x
Simply put α = − 2 0 1 4 to get :
∫ 1 ∞ ( x l n ( x ) ) 2 0 1 4 d x = 2 0 1 3 2 0 1 5 ( 2 0 1 4 ) !
Great job . very nice solution
2014!/ 2013^2015 = (3.2554396263186602540430307685016+) x 10^(-876)
We must apply a genuine technique for this! S (u d v) = u v - S (v d u) of zero u v with 0 to infinity:
Converted into definite integral of [e^(2013 y)] (y^2014) d y from 0 to infinity with y = Ln x,
With integral of [e^(2013 y)] (y^n) d y = I (n)
I (2014) = (2014/ 2013)(2013/ 2013)(2012/ 2013) I (2011) = 2014!/ 2013^2014 I (0)
I (0) = Integral of e^(2013 y) d y from 0 to infinity = 1/ 2013
I (2014) = 2014!/ 2013^2015
2014 + 2013 + 2015 = 6042
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Let ln x = t
Then,
d x = e t d t
The integral simplifies to,
0 ∫ ∞ t 2 0 1 4 e − 2 0 1 3 t d t
Using IBP, we get,
0 ∫ ∞ t 2 0 1 4 e − 2 0 1 3 t d t = − 2 0 1 3 t 2 0 1 4 e − 2 0 1 3 t ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 0 ∞ + 2 0 1 3 2 0 1 4 0 ∫ ∞ t 2 0 1 3 e − 2 0 1 3 t d t
I = 0 + 2 0 1 3 2 0 1 4 0 ∫ ∞ t 2 0 1 3 e − 2 0 1 3 t d t
Repeating the same procedure, we get,
I = 2 0 1 3 2 0 1 4 ( 0 + 2 0 1 3 2 0 1 3 0 ∫ ∞ t 2 0 1 2 e − 2 0 1 3 t d t )
Proceeding this way till the power of t becomes 0 , we get,
I = 2 0 1 3 2 0 1 4 × 2 0 1 3 2 0 1 3 × … × 2 0 1 3 1 0 ∫ ∞ e − 2 0 1 3 t d t
Thus,
I = 2 0 1 3 2 0 1 4 2 0 1 4 ! × 2 0 1 3 1 = 2 0 1 3 2 0 1 5 2 0 1 4 ! = q r p !
Hence,
p + q + r = 2 0 1 4 + 2 0 1 3 + 2 0 1 5 = 6 0 4 2