Two side lengths of a triangle are randomly chosen uniformly from Then, the third side length is randomly chosen uniformly from the interval of side lengths that form a valid triangle.
Is this triangle more likely to be acute or obtuse?
Bonus: Find the exact probabilities.
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If the first two sides are x , y , chosen uniformly and independently from ( 0 , 1 ) , then the third side z must satisfy the inequalities x ≤ y + z , y ≤ x + z , z ≤ x + y , and hence we must have ∣ x − y ∣ ≤ z ≤ x + y Since the cosines of the angles X , Y , Z are cos X = 2 y z y 2 + z 2 − x 2 cos Y = 2 x z x 2 + z 2 − y 2 cos Z = 2 x y x 2 + y 2 − z 2 the triangle will be acute provided that x 2 ≤ y 2 + z 2 , y 2 ≤ x 2 + z 2 , z 2 ≤ x 2 + y 2 , and so we must have ∣ x 2 − y 2 ∣ ≤ z 2 ≤ x 2 + y 2 Since ∣ x 2 − y 2 ∣ ≥ ( x − y ) 2 and x 2 + y 2 ≤ ( x + y ) 2 , we deduce that the probability that the triangle is acute, given that the first two sides are x , y , is x + y − ∣ x − y ∣ x 2 + y 2 − ∣ x 2 − y 2 ∣ and hence the probability of an acute-angled triangle is therefore (putting y = x u ) in the last line): p = ∫ 0 1 d x ∫ 0 1 d y x + y − ∣ x − y ∣ x 2 + y 2 − ∣ x 2 − y 2 ∣ = 2 ∫ 0 1 d x ∫ 0 x d y 2 y x 2 + y 2 − x 2 − y 2 = 2 ∫ 0 1 d x ∫ 0 1 d u 2 u 1 + u 2 − 1 − u 2 × x = 2 1 ∫ 0 1 u 1 + u 2 − 1 − u 2 d u Thus (it is simplest to check this integral by differentiating back again) p = 2 1 [ − 1 − u 2 + 1 + u 2 + ln ( 1 + 1 − u 2 ) − ln ( 1 + 1 + u 2 ) ] 0 1 = 2 1 ( 2 − ln ( 1 + 2 ) ) = 0 . 2 6 6 4 2 making an obtuse-angled triangle more likely.
A quick Monte Carlo test in Excel, looking at 1000 randomly generated triangles at a time, consistently gives a proportion of roughly 26% of acute-angled triangles.