There exists a unique, positive-valued, non-constant, continuous and differentiable function y = f ( x ) such that
If ∫ ln 2 ln 5 f ( x ) d x = b a , where a and b are coprime positive integers, then find a + b .
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
Nice! Did it exactly the same way. What a nice way to hide differential equations within a problem.
Log in to reply
Indeed. The process of mapping the language into math was pretty enjoyable.
Log in to reply
I'm glad you both enjoyed the problem. This is yet another reason why cosh ( x ) is such a "cool" function. :)
Technically, the integrands are equal up to a set of measure 0. We need to make an argument about continuity, to conclude that they agree at all points.
In particular, we could have had multiple solutions if they disagreed at a point.
Log in to reply
The argument is easily made. Suppose there is a discontinuity at point p , so that lim x ↓ p f ( x ) − lim x ↑ p f ( x ) = c = 0 . Take a sequence of intervals around p whose length tends to zero. Then the arc length in that interval tends to ∣ c ∣ > 0 , while the contribution to the area tends to zero. Thus this function does not satisfy the description of the problem.
If the function is not differentiable in a zero-set, that is no problem either. Simply leave the infinitesimal "strip" around the non-differentiable points out of the integration.
Log in to reply
I just notice that Brian states that the function is continuous and differentiable. Next thing he'll tell us it's smooth or C ∞ ... too easy! :D
Log in to reply
@Arjen Vreugdenhil – Right. The conditions of "continuous and differentiable" can be deduced from the context.
Knowing the area between the curve and the x axis is equal to the arc length, we can derive the equation ∫ a b f ( x ) d x = ∫ a b 1 + ( f ′ ( x ) ) 2 d x Taking the derivative of both sides gets us f ( x ) = 1 + ( f ′ ( x ) ) 2 ( f ( x ) ) 2 = 1 + ( f ′ ( x ) ) 2 ( f ( x ) ) 2 − ( f ′ ( x ) ) 2 = 1 Recalling that d x d cosh ( x ) = sinh ( x ) and cosh ( x ) − sinh ( x ) = 1 , we know f ( x ) = cosh ( x + C ) . Knowing f ( 0 ) = 1 and cosh ( 0 ) = 1 , we know C = 0 . Now we can solve for the integral ∫ ln ( 2 ) ln ( 5 ) cosh ( x ) d x [ sinh ( x ) ] ln ( 2 ) ln ( 5 ) 2 e ln ( 5 ) − e − ln ( 5 ) − 2 e ln ( 5 ) − e − ln ( 5 ) 5 1 2 − 4 3 2 0 4 8 − 1 5 = 2 0 3 3 Therefore, a = 3 3 and b = 2 0 . Thus, a + b = 3 3 + 2 0 = 5 3
"We know f ( x ) = cosh ( x ) ." Not quite-- the relationship also holds true when we translate x , so that you can only conclude that f ( x ) = cosh ( x + c ) for some constant c . This is where the information f ( 0 ) = 1 is essential to conclude c = 0 .
Log in to reply
Oh right, thank you for pointing that out. I skipped ahead a few steps.
Being pedantic, the upper limit of the integral in the first line should be x, with dummy variables in the integrand if you were to apply FTC.
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
We require that ∫ y d x = ∫ 1 + ( y ′ ) 2 d x over any interval. As the interval is arbitrary, the integrands must be equal. Thus
y = 1 + ( y ′ ) 2 ⟹ y 2 = 1 + ( d x d y ) 2 ⟹ y 2 − 1 = d x d y ⟹ y 2 − 1 d y = d x ⟹
cosh − 1 ( y ) = x + C ⟹ y = cosh ( x + C ) .
Now to have f ( 0 ) = 1 we must have cosh ( C ) = 1 ⟹ C = 0 , so y = f ( x ) = cosh ( x ) . Since the integral of cosh ( x ) is sinh ( x ) , the given integral is equal to
sinh ( ln ( 5 ) ) − sinh ( ln ( 2 ) ) = 2 5 − 5 1 − 2 2 − 2 1 = 5 1 2 − 4 3 = 2 0 3 3 , and so a + b + 3 3 + 2 0 = 5 3 .
Note that sinh ( x ) = 2 e x − e − x .