A recycled curve

Calculus Level 3

There exists a unique, positive-valued, non-constant, continuous and differentiable function y = f ( x ) y = f(x) such that

  • over any specified interval, the area between f ( x ) f(x) and the x x -axis is equal to the arc length of the curve, and
  • f ( 0 ) = 1. f(0) = 1.

If ln 2 ln 5 f ( x ) d x = a b \displaystyle \int_{\ln2}^{\ln5} f(x) \, dx = \dfrac{a}{b} , where a a and b b are coprime positive integers, then find a + b a + b .


The answer is 53.

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2 solutions

We require that y d x = 1 + ( y ) 2 d x \displaystyle \int y dx = \int \sqrt{1 + (y')^{2}} dx over any interval. As the interval is arbitrary, the integrands must be equal. Thus

y = 1 + ( y ) 2 y 2 = 1 + ( d y d x ) 2 y 2 1 = d y d x d y y 2 1 = d x y = \sqrt{1 + (y')^{2}} \Longrightarrow y^{2} = 1 + \left(\dfrac{dy}{dx}\right)^{2} \Longrightarrow \sqrt{y^{2} - 1} = \dfrac{dy}{dx} \Longrightarrow \dfrac{dy}{\sqrt{y^{2} - 1}} = dx \Longrightarrow

cosh 1 ( y ) = x + C y = cosh ( x + C ) \cosh^{-1}(y) = x + C \Longrightarrow y = \cosh(x + C) .

Now to have f ( 0 ) = 1 f(0) = 1 we must have cosh ( C ) = 1 C = 0 \cosh(C) = 1 \Longrightarrow C = 0 , so y = f ( x ) = cosh ( x ) y = f(x) = \cosh(x) . Since the integral of cosh ( x ) \cosh(x) is sinh ( x ) \sinh(x) , the given integral is equal to

sinh ( ln ( 5 ) ) sinh ( ln ( 2 ) ) = 5 1 5 2 2 1 2 2 = 12 5 3 4 = 33 20 \sinh(\ln(5)) - \sinh(\ln(2)) = \dfrac{5 - \dfrac{1}{5}}{2} - \dfrac{2 - \dfrac{1}{2}}{2} = \dfrac{12}{5} - \dfrac{3}{4} = \dfrac{33}{20} , and so a + b + 33 + 20 = 53 a + b + 33 + 20 = \boxed{53} .

Note that sinh ( x ) = e x e x 2 \sinh(x) = \dfrac{e^{x} - e^{-x}}{2} .

Nice! Did it exactly the same way. What a nice way to hide differential equations within a problem.

Efren Medallo - 4 years ago

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Indeed. The process of mapping the language into math was pretty enjoyable.

Steven Chase - 4 years ago

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I'm glad you both enjoyed the problem. This is yet another reason why cosh ( x ) \cosh(x) is such a "cool" function. :)

Brian Charlesworth - 4 years ago

Technically, the integrands are equal up to a set of measure 0. We need to make an argument about continuity, to conclude that they agree at all points.

In particular, we could have had multiple solutions if they disagreed at a point.

Calvin Lin Staff - 4 years ago

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The argument is easily made. Suppose there is a discontinuity at point p p , so that lim x p f ( x ) lim x p f ( x ) = c 0 \lim_{x\downarrow p} f(x) - \lim_{x\uparrow p} f(x) = c \not= 0 . Take a sequence of intervals around p p whose length tends to zero. Then the arc length in that interval tends to c > 0 |c| > 0 , while the contribution to the area tends to zero. Thus this function does not satisfy the description of the problem.

If the function is not differentiable in a zero-set, that is no problem either. Simply leave the infinitesimal "strip" around the non-differentiable points out of the integration.

Arjen Vreugdenhil - 4 years ago

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I just notice that Brian states that the function is continuous and differentiable. Next thing he'll tell us it's smooth or C \mathcal C^\infty ... too easy! :D

Arjen Vreugdenhil - 4 years ago

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@Arjen Vreugdenhil Right. The conditions of "continuous and differentiable" can be deduced from the context.

Calvin Lin Staff - 4 years ago
Kevin Tong
Jun 4, 2017

Knowing the area between the curve and the x axis is equal to the arc length, we can derive the equation a b f ( x ) d x = a b 1 + ( f ( x ) ) 2 d x \int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx = \int_{a}^{b}\sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2}dx Taking the derivative of both sides gets us f ( x ) = 1 + ( f ( x ) ) 2 ( f ( x ) ) 2 = 1 + ( f ( x ) ) 2 ( f ( x ) ) 2 ( f ( x ) ) 2 = 1 f(x) = \sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2} \\ (f(x))^2 = 1+(f'(x))^2 \\ (f(x))^2-(f'(x))^2 = 1 Recalling that d d x cosh ( x ) = sinh ( x ) \frac{d}{dx} \cosh(x) = \sinh(x) and cosh ( x ) sinh ( x ) = 1 \cosh(x)-\sinh(x) = 1 , we know f ( x ) = cosh ( x + C ) f(x) = \cosh(x+C) . Knowing f ( 0 ) = 1 f(0) = 1 and cosh ( 0 ) = 1 \cosh(0) = 1 , we know C = 0 C = 0 . Now we can solve for the integral ln ( 2 ) ln ( 5 ) cosh ( x ) d x [ sinh ( x ) ] ln ( 2 ) ln ( 5 ) e ln ( 5 ) e ln ( 5 ) 2 e ln ( 5 ) e ln ( 5 ) 2 12 5 3 4 48 15 20 = 33 20 \int_{\ln(2)}^{\ln(5)}\cosh(x)dx \\ [\sinh(x)]_{\ln(2)}^{\ln(5)} \\ \frac{e^{\ln(5)}-e^{-\ln(5)}}{2} - \frac{e^{\ln(5)}-e^{-\ln(5)}}{2} \\ \frac{12}{5}-\frac{3}{4} \\ \frac{48-15}{20} = \frac{33}{20} Therefore, a = 33 a = 33 and b = 20 b=20 . Thus, a + b = 33 + 20 = 53 a+b = 33+20 = \boxed{53}

"We know f ( x ) = cosh ( x ) f(x) = \cosh(x) ." Not quite-- the relationship also holds true when we translate x x , so that you can only conclude that f ( x ) = cosh ( x + c ) f(x) = \cosh(x + c) for some constant c c . This is where the information f ( 0 ) = 1 f(0) = 1 is essential to conclude c = 0 c = 0 .

Arjen Vreugdenhil - 4 years ago

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Oh right, thank you for pointing that out. I skipped ahead a few steps.

Kevin Tong - 4 years ago

Being pedantic, the upper limit of the integral in the first line should be x, with dummy variables in the integrand if you were to apply FTC.

Kennedy Nguyen - 4 years ago

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