0 . 1 m and a spigot of radius 0 . 0 1 m . Initially the lemonade is at a height of 0 . 5 m in the vat. You then open the spigot. How long does it take for all the lemonade to flow out of the vat in seconds ?
A lemonade vat is essentially a big cylinder that rests on its end with a spigot on the very bottom. One particular vat is a cylinder with radius
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Note : v t o p is the velocity of the topmost layer of liquid.
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Though we assume v t o p = 0 when we use Bernoulli's Equation to arrive at v e f f l u x = 2 g h which seems to be disproved by your solution. Can you justify that assumption or refute it with a suitable explanation ?
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of course i can.
Recall the derivation of toricelli's theorem.
Let v e f f l u x = v 1 , v t o p = v 2
Use equation of continuity to get v 2 = A a v 1 < < v 1
Now , we apply bernuolli's theorem to get,
ρ g h + 2 1 ρ v 2 2 + P 0 = 2 1 ρ v 1 2 + P 0
Now, 2 1 ρ [ v 1 2 − v 2 2 ] = ρ g h
Here , we neglect v 2 in comparision to v 1 , we don't take it 0 .
You do similar thing when we replace c − c α by c while finding pH of a weak acid .
There you would say that [ H ] + = c α = 0 ??
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@Jatin Yadav – Ok. Got it..........So silly a thing asked by me. But thanks for the interest shown by you.......
Let the rate of the liquid flowing out of the spigot be d t d V = -(rate of volume of the liquid lost as it flows out) . The minus sign is for indicating the decrease in volume . Let A and a be the area of cross-section of the base of the container and the spigot respectively . Let v be the velocity in m/s with which the liquid flows out of the spigot . Thus , the volume of liquid which flows out per second from the spigot = a v . Therefore ,
d t d V = − a v ( E q . 1 )
Let mass m of the liquid be at height h above the base of the container . It has potential energy = m g h . When this liquid flows out of the spigot , it will have a kinetic energy = 2 1 m v 2 . Hence , using conservation of energy and assuming no loss of energy due to viscosity of liquid or forces of cohesion , we can say that m g h = 2 1 m v 2
⇒ v = 2 g h ( E q . 2 )
From E q . 1 and E q . 2 , we conclude d t d V = − a 2 g h . Writing the volume of liquid in the container as a function of time , we have V ( t ) = A h ( t ) where h is the height of the liquid in the cylinder as a function of time . Thus , we can write d t d ( V ( t ) ) = A d t d ( h ( t ) ) . Therefore , A d t d ( h ( t ) ) = − a 2 g h ⇒ d t d ( h ( t ) ) = − A a 2 g h .
Simply put , we have d t d h = − k h where k = A a 2 g .
After variable separation , we have h d h = − k d t . Let the height of the cylinder be H . As the height of the liquid decreases from H to zero , time increases from zero to t . Integrating the above obtained differential equation after applying proper limits , we have
∫ H 0 h d h = ∫ 0 t k d t ⇒ − 2 H = − k t ⇒ t = k 2 H .
Substituting for k , we have t = a A g 2 H .
Substituting the values , we get t = π ( 0 . 0 1 ) 2 π ( 0 . 1 ) 2 9 . 8 2 × 0 . 5
⇒ t = 3 1 . 9 4 seconds .
In the integral with limits , the R.H.S. of the equation should be ∫ 0 t − k d t . Sorry for the mistake .
Bernoulli's Equation says 2 1 ρ v 1 2 + ρ g h 1 + p 1 = 2 1 ρ v 2 2 + ρ g h 2 + p 2 . Because p 1 = p 2 = p a t m in this case and the velocity at the top of the container is v 1 = 0 approximately. Hence, we have v 2 = 2 g Δ h . In the case, Δ h = h = 0 . 5 m
It follows that the rate of flow at bottom is Q = v 2 A 0 = 2 g h A 0 in which A 0 denotes the cross sectional area of the spigot.
Then we have d t d V = − 2 g h A 0 , which can be reduced to d t d V = − 2 g A 0 V / A 1 in which A 1 denotes the cross sectional area of the vat and V denotes the volume of lemonade.
Solve the differential equation to obtain 2 V 1 / 2 = − A 1 − 1 / 2 A 0 2 g t + C in which C is an unknown constant. In the equation, A 1 = 0 . 1 2 π , A 0 = 0 . 0 1 2 π
Substitute t = 0 and V = 0 . 5 ∗ 0 . 1 2 π into the equation and then we get C = 2 π / 2 0 0
Then substitute V = 0 into the equation and solve for t. Eventually, t = 3 1 . 8 s
You need to find the debit of the water from the spigot first: Firstly, you need to find the velocity:
v= 2 ∗ g ∗ h
v= 9 . 8
Secondly, you need to find the Debit:
Q=A*v, A=base area of lemon vat= π . r 2 = ( 0 . 0 1 ) 2 . π
Q= ( 0 . 0 1 ) 2 ∗ 9 . 8 ∗ π
Thirdly, you can find the time from the debit and velocity:
t= volume of lemon/debit
Volume of lemon= π ∗ r 2 ∗ h = ( 0 . 1 ) 2 ∗ 0 . 5 ∗ π
t = ( 0 . 1 ) 2 ∗ 0 . 5 ∗ π / ( ( 0 . 0 1 ) 2 ∗ 9 8 ∗ π )
t = 3 1 . 9 4 s e c o n d
Simple man
Hmm strange, how You get 32 sec, I get 15 sec. Your explanation is very good. Thank you.
From Bernoulli's Equation we have:
2 1 ρ v 1 2 + ρ g h 1 + p 1 = 2 1 ρ v 2 2 + ρ g h 2 + p 2
where 1 states the condition at the top of the vat and 2 states the condition at the bottom of the vat.
Since p 1 = p 2 and v 1 = 0 ,
ρ g h 1 = 2 1 ρ v 2 2 + ρ g h 2
v 2 = 2 g Δ h
We can write the rate of flow at the bottom of the cylinder as below:
Q = v 2 A s p i g o t
d t d V = − 2 g Δ h A s p i g o t
Because Δ h = A v a t V ,
d t d V = − 2 g A v a t V A s p i g o t
V 1 d t d V = − A v a t 2 g A s p i g o t
2 V = − A v a t 2 g A s p i g o t t + C
When t = 0 , then V = π × 0 . 1 2 × 0 . 5 . Here we obtain C = 1 0 2 π . Hence we can get full equation as below:
2 V = − A v a t 2 g A s p i g o t t + 1 0 1 2 π
When V = 0 ,
− A v a t 2 g A s p i g o t t + 1 0 2 π = 0
A v a t 2 g A s p i g o t t = 1 0 2 π
t = 1 0 2 π × 2 g A v a t × A s p i g o t 1
Since A v a t = π × 0 . 1 2 and A s p i g o t = π × 0 . 0 1 2
t = 3 1 . 9 4 3
The answer said 3 1 . 8 , a bit different with mine. I wonder where did I make mistake?
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Actually, i was also getting exactly 3 1 . 9 4 3 . The probable error :
v 1 = 0 but v 1 = A v a t A s p i g o t v 2 and hence v 2 = A v a t A v a t 2 − A s p i g o t 2 2 g h which can be approximated as 2 g h as A s p i g o t < < A v a t .
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Wow your solution much shorter than mine, cool :O
How can d t d V = − 2 g Δ h A s p i g o t ? I mean why should it be − instead of + ?
R , r are the radii of he cylinder and the spigot respectively and h ˙ , v is the change in the height of the water and the speed at the spigot respectively. Due to the conservation of mass,
h ˙ π R 2 = v π r 2
h ˙ r 2 R 2 = v
Also, using the Bernoulli equation,
P 0 + 2 ρ v 2 + ρ g 0 = P 0 + 2 ρ h ˙ 2 + ρ g h
Combining,
h ˙ 2 r 4 R 4 = h ˙ 2 + 2 g h
Δ t = r 4 2 g R 4 − r 4 ∫ h = h 0 0 h 1 d h
Δ t = − 2 r 4 2 g R 4 − r 4 h 0
Then insert the values.
There is an unwanted minus sign, but the absolute value is correct. Any ideas where the minus sign came from? I'm pretty sure my limits of integration are the correct way around.
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We know that v e f f l u x = 2 g h
Applying equation of continuity ,
v t o p = R 2 r 2 2 g h = − d t d h
⇒ ∫ H 0 h d h = − R 2 r 2 2 g ∫ 0 t d t
⇒ t = r 2 R 2 g 2 H = 3 1 . 9