x + y x + y + z y + z + x z
Over all non-negative reals x , y , z satisfying x + y + z = 4 , let the maximium value of the above expression be M . What is the value of ⌊ 1 0 0 0 0 × M ⌋ ?
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That's weird. The maximum isn't obtained when x = y = z though...
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Yeah, x = y = z yields a value of approximately 2 . 4 5 , less than the maximum of 2 . 5 that is achieved when ( x , y , z ) = ( 3 , 1 , 0 ) , (or any other combination). I still haven't figured out how to prove this yet .....
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Would it be reasonable to prove it with Langrage Multipliers?
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@Vladimir Smith – For problems like these I often try that method first, but in this case it would just give us the "symmetry solution", which turns out to be a local maximum and not a global maximum, (under the given conditions).
(Note that if x , y , z could be any reals summing to 4 then there would be no maximum.)
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@Brian Charlesworth – I don't know much about lagrange multipliers, but unless I'm mistaken in a lagrange multipliers solution one must first address having one or more of the variables equal to zero, then using it for positive instead of non-negative variables?
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@Daniel Liu – The first condition that needs to be met is that the functions involved must have continuous first partial derivatives. This is the case here as long as at most one of the variables is equal to 0 , (which must be the case for the given function to be continuos anyway). Applying Lagrange under this condition yields the symmetry solution Now while no alarm bells go off if we were to just set one of the variables equal to 0 , when we do set, say, z = 0 and then apply Lagrange, we end up with the given function being maximized for ( x , y ) = ( 3 , 1 ) . So I guess we might have to consider the z = 0 scenario as an "endpoint" that we need to check given the non-negative requirement, but I can't yet make a formal argument for this.
Note that if we have ( x , y , z ) = ( 3 , 1 − ϵ , ϵ ) then lim ϵ → 0 + f ( x , y , z ) = 2 . 5 , so the maximum is not some isolated point. In fact, this limit would appear to be two-sided, all the more reason to have expected the Lagrange method to flag it as a local maximum, and yet this didn't happen.
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@Brian Charlesworth – is there any other way to solve this question instead of using Lagrange Multipliers ?
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@Shivam Mishra – I still can't find a purely algebraic approach. I'd like to see what Daniel had in mind for a solution.
Do you have a solution, @Daniel Liu
We can solve this problem by S.O.S way.
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I assume that you're referring to the "Sum of Squares" method . That's a thought, but it's not clear to me how we could make use of that method here. Could you show some steps on how to proceed?
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@Brian Charlesworth – Full incremental variable and applying S.O.S
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@Son Nguyen – Can you post your solution? Thanks.
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@Pi Han Goh – Yeap maybe tomorow...It's late.
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@Son Nguyen – Are you able to post a solution?
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@Pi Han Goh – Sorry,I'm too busy.I have to practice for next mathematical olympiad city round...Maybe one day I post a NOTE.
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@Son Nguyen – @MS HT Is the solution up?
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@Sualeh Asif – Yes,you can read in my note in my season of inequality
For maximum with non-negatives , we conclude either of x , y , z = 0.
WLOG z = 0 .
Thus above expression becomes
ξ = y + x / 2 .
Since x + y = 4
ξ = 4 − x + x / 2 .
Thence using concept of maxima and minima we find maximum is attained at x = 3 .
Therefore
ξ m a x = 2 . 5 .
Why is either x , y , z equal to zero?
What does "WLOG" mean?
How does the first line come?
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