A different wheel

The figure above shows a circuit. The wheel has a brush that ensures that a spoke is in contact with the wires all the time, thus completing the circuit. There is a magnetic induction B B directed into the plane of the diagram. The inductor has an inductance of L L and the cell has an emf of V . V. The radius of the wheel is R R and its moment of inertia about its axis is I I .

Find the angular velocity of the wheel at t = π 2 3 s t=\SI[per-mode=symbol]{\frac{2\pi}{3}}{\second} .


Details and Assumptions:

  • There is no resistance in the circuit.

  • V = 20 V , I = 16 kg m 2 , L = 1 H , R = 1 m , B = 4 T V=\SI[per-mode=symbol]{20}{\volt},I=\SI[per-mode=symbol]{16}{\kilo\gram\meter\squared},L=\SI[per-mode=symbol]{1}{\henry},R=\SI[per-mode=symbol]{1}{\meter},B=\SI[per-mode=symbol]{4}{\tesla} .


Source: INPHO.


The answer is 5.

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2 solutions

Spandan Senapati
May 27, 2017

We proceed as follows..... Let the current in the circuit at an instant be i i .Then using Kirchoff's Loop Law. L d i / d t + E V = 0 Ldi/dt+E-V=0 . E E is the magnitude of the motional Emf induced in the spoke.....We know E = B ω R 2 / 2 E=B\omega R^2/2 .Also I d ω / d t = τ Id\omega /dt=\tau .For a small element d τ = ( i B d r ) r d\tau=(iBdr)r .Now integration with limits from 0 R 0-R yield d τ = i B r d r \int d\tau=iB\int rdr or τ = i B R 2 / 2 \tau =iBR^2/2 .Plugging the required eq becomes i B R 2 / 2 = I d ω / d t iBR^2/2=Id\omega /dt .So Our KVL modifies to 2 L I / B R 2 d ω / d t = E B ω R 2 / 2 2LI/BR^2d\omega /dt=E-B\omega R^2/2 .Now its easy to observe that the eq represents the equation of SHM(set E B ω R 2 / 2 = ϕ E-B\omega R^2/2=\phi you get the trivial eq d 2 ϕ / d t 2 = ψ 2 ϕ d^2\phi /dt^2=-\psi^2 \phi ).Now we use the boundary conditions. 1)At t = 0 , i = 0 t=0,i=0 .& 2) ω = 0 \omega =0 .This gives ω = 2 V / B R 2 ( 1 c o s ψ t ) \omega=2V/BR^2(1-cos\psi t) .where ψ = B R 2 / 2 ( I L ) \psi=BR^2/2√(IL) .Plugging the required values you get the answer as ω = 5 \omega =5

Good question. I'd posted a similar question .

Kishore S. Shenoy - 3 years, 11 months ago

My first Olympiad level physics problem which I solved :D

Was this a very easy problem @Spandan Senapati wrt Olympiad physics?

Harsh Shrivastava - 3 years, 10 months ago

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No not exactly. It can be said as a moderate level olympiad problem.Questions in Inpho are quite similar to jee physics problems. But in the recent years some problems like Inpho-2016 prob-6(Hideshi-Yukawa Potential), inpho-2013(Brunt-Vaisala Oscillations) can be considered challenging although doable.

Spandan Senapati - 3 years, 9 months ago

Hey it's actually TAKEN from PRINCETON PROBLEMS IN PHYSICS. It was previously asked in an exam at the mentioned university

raj abhinav - 1 year, 2 months ago

Am I correct?

raj abhinav - 1 year, 2 months ago
Steven Chase
May 26, 2017

The trick to this problem, which I initially didn't fully comprehend, is that the charges in the spoke (rod) effectively have two different motions:

1) A longitudinal electrical drift which results in a transverse torque on the spoke (via the B-field)
2) A transverse motion, due to the rotation, which induces a longitudinal motional emf in the rod (also via the B-field).

When the current and B-field are at right angles, the transverse force on a current carrying wire of length l l is:

F = i l B \large{F = ilB}

The differential torque on a piece of the conducting spoke is: d τ = ( i d r B ) r = B i r d r \large{d\tau = (i \, dr\, B)r = B i r \, dr}

The total torque on the spoke is:

τ = 0 R B i r d r = B i R 2 2 \large{\tau = \int_0^R B i r \, dr = \frac{B i R^2}{2}}

Applying the rotational form of Newton's Second Law gives:

τ = I d ω d t = B i R 2 2 i = 2 I B R 2 d ω d t d i d t = 2 I B R 2 d 2 ω d t 2 \large{\tau = I \frac{d\omega}{dt} = \frac{B i R^2}{2} \\ i = \frac{2I}{B R^2} \frac{d\omega}{dt} \\ \frac{di}{dt} = \frac{2I}{B R^2} \frac{d^2 \omega}{dt^2}}

There are three voltage changes in the circuit:

1) The source voltage
2) The inductor voltage V L = L d i d t V_L = L \frac{di}{dt}
3) The motional emf induced in the rod

Let's calculate the motional emf. For a rod of length l l moving at speed v v at right angles to a uniform B-field, the motional emf is:

E = B l v \large{E = Blv}

For an infinitesimal piece of the spoke, this translates to:

d E = B d r r ω = B ω r d r \large{dE = B \, dr \, r \omega = B \omega r \, dr}

The total motional emf in the spoke is then:

E = 0 R B ω r d r = B ω R 2 2 \large{E = \int_0^R B \omega r \, dr = \frac{B \omega R^2}{2}}

Writing the KVL equation for the circuit gives:

V = L d i d t + B ω R 2 2 \large{V = L \frac{di}{dt} + \frac{B \omega R^2}{2}}

Substituting for d i d t \frac{di}{dt} in terms of ω \omega gives:

V = 2 I L B R 2 d 2 ω d t 2 + B ω R 2 2 \large{V = \frac{2IL}{B R^2} \frac{d^2 \omega}{dt^2} + \frac{B \omega R^2}{2}}

Do these sign conventions make sense? It seems to me that this system will likely behave similarly to an un-commutated DC motor, which means that its angular speed will oscillate between clockwise and counter-clockwise when a DC voltage is applied. This behavior is implied by the above equations.

The homogeneous equation is:

d 2 ω d t 2 = B 2 R 4 4 I L ω = α ω \large{\frac{d^2 \omega}{dt^2} = -\frac{B^2 R^4}{4IL} \omega = -\alpha \omega}

The general solution is then:

ω = A c o s ( α t ) + B s i n ( α t ) + C ω ˙ = A α s i n ( α t ) + B α c o s ( α t ) ω ¨ = A α c o s ( α t ) B α s i n ( α t ) \large{\omega = A cos(\sqrt{\alpha} t) + B sin(\sqrt{\alpha} t) + C \\ \dot{\omega} = -A \sqrt{\alpha} sin(\sqrt{\alpha} t) + B \sqrt{\alpha} cos(\sqrt{\alpha} t) \\ \ddot{\omega} = -A \alpha cos(\sqrt{\alpha} t) - B \alpha sin(\sqrt{\alpha} t)}

Applying initial conditions gives (note that the initial speed is zero and the initial torque is zero):

0 = A + C 0 = B V = 2 I L B R 2 ( A α ) = 2 I L B R 2 ( A ) B 2 R 4 4 I L = A B R 2 2 \large{0 = A + C \\ 0 = B \\ V = \frac{2IL}{B R^2} (-A \alpha) = \frac{2IL}{B R^2} (-A) \frac{B^2 R^4}{4IL} = -A \frac{B R^2}{2} }

Solving for the constants gives:

A = 2 V B R 2 B = 0 C = 2 V B R 2 \large{A = -\frac{2V}{BR^2} \\ B = 0 \\ C = \frac{2V}{BR^2}}

The expression for ω \omega is then:

ω = 2 V B R 2 ( 1 c o s ( α t ) ) α = B 2 R 4 4 I L \large{\omega = \frac{2V}{BR^2} (1 - cos(\sqrt{\alpha} t)) \\ \alpha = \frac{B^2 R^4}{4 IL} }

Plugging in numbers and solving at t = 2 π 3 \large{t = \frac{2 \pi}{3}} gives ω = 5 \boxed{\large{\omega = 5}} .

Hey its incorrect.....I have set values such that the exact answer is 5.The mistake here is that when a spoke rotates in the magnetic field there is a Motional emf induced so L d i / d t + B ω R 2 / 2 V = 0 Ldi/dt+B\omega R^2/2-V=0 .and i B R 2 / 2 = I d ω / d t iBR^2/2=Id\omega /dt .....Solving this gives ω = ( 2 V / B R 2 ) ( 1 c o s ψ t ) \omega =(2V/BR^2)(1-cos\psi t) .where B R 2 / 2 I L = ψ BR^2/2√IL=\psi ......Thanks.

Spandan Senapati - 4 years ago

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Interesting. So the electric charge in the wire actually has two different velocity components: A longitudinal component (current drift velocity) which interacts with the B field to produce a transverse torque, and a transverse component (mechanical) which gives rise to an internal longitudinal voltage drop in the wire.

Steven Chase - 4 years ago

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The latter of which I neglected to account for.

Steven Chase - 4 years ago

Yes....That's what Olympiads test for........Creativity... I just shared this problem for I thought it will be interesting for the community.....Now can you plz post a solution...That will help a lot...

Spandan Senapati - 4 years ago

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@Spandan Senapati Sure, I'll update it tomorrow.

Steven Chase - 4 years ago

@Spandan Senapati Ok, the solution has been updated.

Steven Chase - 4 years ago

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@Steven Chase Sir what's the latex for putting the limits of integration.

Spandan Senapati - 4 years ago

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@Spandan Senapati You can hover over it with your mouse to see

Steven Chase - 4 years ago

And the title itself says a different wheel.....its angular velocity increases then decreases,zero sometimes....?rather than the common wheels......

Spandan Senapati - 4 years ago

@Steven Chase .Thanks a lot sir.....Great solution......

Spandan Senapati - 4 years ago

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Thanks. That was a fun problem.

Steven Chase - 4 years ago

Hey, taking general solution is the right way. But simplifying in the following way is easier. d i d t = V ω B R 2 2 ω ( ω 2 V B R 2 ) \dfrac{di}{dt} = V - \dfrac{\omega B R^2}{2}\\\omega\to \left(\omega - \dfrac{2V}{BR^2}\right)

Kishore S. Shenoy - 3 years, 11 months ago

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