We have a very short electric dipole with moment p placed at the origin. The dipole is pointing towards positive x-axis.
Select a field line that passes though ( 0 , 1 ) and trace the entire field line, it should form a closed curve. (Refer to the given figure) The area of the loop in the upper half of the plane is b a π .
Find a + b
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What's wrong in this approach :
d x d y = E x E y = tan ( α + θ ) . . . . . ( 1 ) tan α = 2 tan ( θ ) . . . . . . . ( 2 ) ( s t a n d a r d r e s u l t ) tan ( θ ) = x y . . . . . . . . ( 3 ) ⇒ d x d y = 2 x 2 − y 2 3 x y .
This is Homogeneous equation of degree 2 so putting
y = v x .
But How can now I proceed further without knowing sepratley y = f(x) for calculating area ??
btw in general for any dipole the field strength is
kp/r^3 ( 2 cos x (r^) + sin x ( theta ^ )
and i used the fact that field line is always tangential to field at that point to derive equation
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Please Enclose your latex with brackets and slashes otherwise all what you see is simply nonsense. I have edited your solution for your reference.
BTW don't you preview your solutions(no offense just asking)
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Oh sorry i just copy pasted,the stuff from latex,didnt know that i had to put brackets and that explains why others solutions look clear and mine are like random computer science nonsense, i do preview, i thought it was my comps fault or brilliant sites,
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@Mvs Saketh – By the way your solution was extremely good, have you solved the question some where before or it just clicked to you when you saw the question.
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@Ronak Agarwal – Oh thanks but no i didnt see it before,, i had some basic idea of vector fields and polar curves so it immediately clicked,, but i didnt know there was another way too,, please post that solution when possible,,, because it seems really hard to be solved in cartesian form
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@Mvs Saketh – It was unnecasserily lenthy and needless approach. It is bad to solve in cartesian co-ordinates.
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@Ronak Agarwal – Ronak Please Post this in cartisian plane..!!
mvs saketh are you preparing for jee ?
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Yes i guess everyone is, but my primary target is to get into IISC, so i am preparing more for that
shouldnt it be
r
d
θ
/
d
r
=
2
cot
θ
As the electric field of a dipole is inverse-cube field, can we not derive the trajectory of a particle and hence the area?
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Firstly, it aint a standard inverse cube field like a "central force" , so integrating it is hard as force on particle has highly varying and complex direction (arctan(x/2) with radius line) , and depends both on distance and angle,
Also
Contrary to popular belief, the field lines dont necessarily point along the trajectory a particle would take if present at that point,
Look, suppose you release a particle at rest, it will obviously start moving along a field line, but that particle got inertia, and the field lines here are not straight lines, so when the field lines will Bend, the particle doesnt necessarily bend with the same radius of curvature in the same way, its got inertia and is likely to "skip" a few lines and move further away (Consider a simple example, the motion of a particle in an induced electric field is not a circle (unless there is a wire to constraint it from moving out of circle) because there is no one to provide the necessary centripetal force to make it change its direction))
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I down voted myself after reading your response.....Mvs Saketh .. Awesome...Didn't know why I posted such a foolish comment when I already knew what you said but still I am learning....from mistakes....
Mvs Saketh , My target too is IISC but to make it to IISc, either we need to score above 300 in Mains(to be on safe side) and above 60% in Advanced(216) OR above 60% in mains(216) and above 280 in JEE advanced. The first choice is easier and hence I will target mains.....IISC is heaven for physics..The MIT of INDIA.....Anyways, did you give KVPY....I regret not giving it
Here's the cartesian approach (please refer to deepanshu's diagram.
d x d y = E x E y = t a n ( α + θ )
t a n θ = x y
Also it is a well known fact that :
t a n α = t a n 2 θ (i)
using all this we will be forming our differential equation and it becomes :
d x d y = 2 x 2 − y 2 3 x y
Since it is a homogenous differential equation of degree 2 we will put y = v x to get :
x d x d v = 2 − v 2 v + v 3
It is now become an variable seperable form hence we have :
v ( 1 + v 2 ) 2 − v 2 d v = x d x
Integrating both sides we get :
2 l n ( v ) − 2 3 l n ( 1 + v 2 ) = l n ( x ) + C
Simplifying we get that as :
( 1 + v 2 ) 3 v 4 = C x 2
Putting back v = x y we get :
y 4 = C ( y 2 + x 2 ) 3
We have got the function but now how to find the area is the main problem .
What we do is that we will switch to polar coordinates and my seemingly complicated function becomes :
R = C s i n 2 θ
From initial conditions C is coming out to be 1 .
Now the thing left is integration in polar co-ordinates :
A r e a = A = ∫ 0 π 2 r 2 d θ
Putting the value of R as function of θ and integrating it we get :
A = 1 6 3 π
ohh !! So I did wrong calculation in solving differential equation !! But Still will you please elaborate the concept of Polar coordinate Since I Don't Know about them !
And Also If one do not know the concept of this Polar substitution Then How he Can solved It ??
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I do not think it can be solved without resorting to polar method sooner or later,,
But yes basically polar substitution means put x=r cos(a) and y=r sin(a),,, where r represents distance from origin and cos(a) and sin(a) the angles made by it with the horizontal (x-axis) ,, now you can proceed after expessing all terms (including dx in terms of r and a and hope that you get a reasonably simple expression) this often works,, but remember,, (both r and a are variables)
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My friend also tell me that it is very difficult without polar ! Actually He solved this question when i share it with him. He also do by using Polar! And tell me the answer and then i check it which is correct ! So in actual i don't solve this fully! But still I'am Curious about that how this can be solved without polar! So Now I have doubt that I had find x = f(y) after correct calculation . So If I integrate This ( x dy ) from 0 to infinity then is that is correct or not . I have confusion beacuse I don't Know the nature of this graph ! So is still we can't find it ??
Did the same way ! :P awesome question
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Ya I solved by the Cartesian approach.Although I didn't remember much results I did the approximations and got the differential as ronak..this yielded y 2 = ( x 2 + y 2 ) ( 1 . 5 ) .and later substitute y = x t a n @ .The integral of area came down to 2 s i n 4 @ − 3 s i n 6 @ d @ with limits 0-π
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Equation for a dipole field line is r = R s i n 2 θ (this is an equation in polar form) because as we already know for tiny dipole :
r d θ d r = E c o m p o n e n t a l o n g t h e t a ( p o l a r a n g l e ) E c o m p o n e n t a l o n g r = 2 c o t θ
Now taking d θ to other side and integrating we get :
l n ( r ) = 2 l n ( s i n θ ) + d or r = c s i n 2 θ .
At 2 π , r = R
so r = R s i n 2 θ
where x is the polar angle and R is the radius at equator, or at θ = 9 0 degree,
(note -- the above equation is same as it is for magnetic field line ) it is valid for both as magnetic field line is simply a dipole field line, no difference
Now at x = 2 π , r = 1 as it is said that it passes through ( 0 , 1 ) hence R = 1
Now in polar co-ordinates area is given as integral of :
∫ 0 θ 2 1 r 2 d θ
integrate from 0 to 2 π and multiply it by 2 to get area of the closed loop as :
1 6 3 π
thus answer 1 9