1 2 ( 1 2 0 1 7 ) + 2 2 ( 2 2 0 1 7 ) + 3 2 ( 3 2 0 1 7 ) + ⋯ + 2 0 1 7 2 ( 2 0 1 7 2 0 1 7 )
Find the maximum value of integer n such that 2 n divides the expression above.
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Why you used e^x? Instead simply you could have used binom exp of (1+x)^n and had put x=1 after few manipulations..
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Can u elaborate more
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he means to say that expand ( 1 + x ) n then differentiate w.r.t x then again multiply it by x to give n x ( 1 + x ) n − 1 . Now , differentiate it w.r.t x again and put x = 1 finally .
P.S. However , i am seeing e x being used for the first time in calculation of such type of questions ...books mostly have it expanded in terms of x ...but your solution is unique and much more simpler .
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@Space Sizzlers – While making this problem exponential comes in my mind .Yes it also may be done by above method
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@Kushal Bose – yes that is why your solution is simpler
Add this link please : Binomial
Imagine giving a test to 2017 people, where anyone can pass or fail, and the highest passing scorer and fastest passing test-taker are both given distinction (can be both the same guy). The number of ways to do this if only i people passed the test is i 2 ( i 2 0 1 7 ) .
Now, the number of ways to do this if any number of people can pass the test is obviously i = 1 ∑ 2 0 1 7 i 2 ( i 2 0 1 7 ) . which is the required sum above.
Alternatively, we can just have two cases - one where the highest scorer and fastest taker are different, and one where they are just the same guy. If they were the same guy, there would be 2 0 1 7 ways to choose this guy, and since everyone else can pass or fail, everyone else can do so with 2 2 0 1 6 ways. For the case where they are different, there are just 2 0 1 7 ∗ 2 0 1 6 ways to choose the two awardees, and 2 2 0 1 5 ways to make the other test takers pass or fail. So, the number of ways to hold the test is 2 0 1 7 ∗ 2 2 0 1 6 + 2 0 1 7 ∗ 2 0 1 6 ∗ 2 2 0 1 5 = 2 0 1 7 ∗ 1 0 0 9 ∗ 2 2 0 1 6 . It then follows that the sum above equals this number, and so, the largest value of n for which 2 n divides this sum is 2 0 1 6 .
It's great you guys can turn complex sums into simple real-life probability problems... here is another binomial sum which was solved using a similar strategy...btw @Manuel Kahayon a really unique solution
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( 1 + e x ) n = 1 + ( 1 n ) e x + ( 2 n ) e 2 x + ( 3 n ) e 3 x + ⋯ + ( n n ) e n x
Differentiate w.r.t x
n ( 1 + e x ) n − 1 e x = ( 1 n ) e x + 2 ( 2 n ) e 2 x + 3 ( 3 n ) e 3 x + ⋯ + n ( n n ) e n x
Again differentiate w.r.t x
n ( 1 + e x ) n − 1 e x + n ( n − 1 ) ( 1 + e x ) n − 2 e 2 x = ( 1 n ) e x + 2 2 ( 2 n ) e 2 x + 3 2 ( 3 n ) e 3 x + ⋯ + n 2 ( n n ) e n x
As the above is an identity now put x = 0 then it becomes
n . 2 n − 1 + n ( n − 1 ) . 2 n − 2 = ( 1 n ) + 2 2 ( 2 n ) + 3 2 ( 3 n ) + ⋯ + n 2 ( n n )
So our series becomes
1 2 ( 1 n ) + 2 2 ( 2 n ) + 3 2 ( 3 n ) + ⋯ + n 2 ( n n ) = n . 2 n − 1 + n ( n − 1 ) . 2 n − 2 = 2 n . 2 n − 2 + n 2 2 n − 2 − n 2 n − 2 = n . 2 n − 2 + n 2 . 2 n − 2 = n ( n + 1 ) . 2 n − 2
Now put n = 2 0 1 7 then
1 2 ( 1 2 0 1 7 ) + 2 2 ( 2 2 0 1 7 ) + 3 2 ( 3 2 0 1 7 ) + ⋯ + 2 0 1 7 2 ( 2 0 1 7 2 0 1 7 ) = 2 0 1 7 × 2 0 1 8 × 2 2 0 1 7 − 2 = 2 0 1 7 × 1 0 0 9 × 2 2 0 1 6