Evaluate
∫ 0 ∞ 1 + e x x 2 d x
Note: ζ ( 3 ) = 1 . 2 0 2 0 5 where ζ ( s ) is the Riemann zeta function.
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Nicely done! :)
Another method is to rewrite the integral as follows:
∫ 0 ∞ 1 + e − x x 2 e − x d x = k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) k ∫ 0 ∞ x 2 e − ( k + 1 ) x d x
The above can be easily evaluated using IBP.
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Thats a good one. Please correct me if I'm wrong, but is the following also a method?
I = ∫ 0 ∞ 1 + e x x 2 d x
I = ∫ 0 ∞ x 2 ( 1 + e x ) − 1 d x
I = ∫ 0 ∞ x 2 ( 1 − e x + e 2 x − e 3 x + … ) d x
I = ∫ 0 ∞ x 2 k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) k e k x d x
I = k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) k ∫ 0 ∞ x 2 e k x d x
I am not sure whether the above step is valid or not. If it is correct, then you can see that the integral ∫ 0 ∞ x 2 e k x d x is diverging. So, is it valid?
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Nope, it is not correct. In my comment, I used the following series expansion:
1 + x 1 = k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) k x k
which is valid for ∣ x ∣ < 1 . Clearly e x lies between 1 to ∞ for x ∈ ( 0 , ∞ ) so it is not correct to use the above series expansion.
I hope that helps. :)
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@Pranav Arora – Oh, of course! How could I miss that!! Thanks for that clarification Pranav! I think I just made a fool of myself by committing that silly mistake!
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@Anish Puthuraya – and @Pranav Arora , I think you are not completely wrong Anish. If you know the analytic continuation of Riemann zeta function or might be familiar with Grandi's series , your method might be justified. Note that, the series expansion also valid for x = 1 in String Theory.
I too did it using Integration by Parts;
Differentiate x 2 and integrate 1 + e − x e − x to obtain:
∫ 0 ∞ 2 x ln ( 1 + e − x ) d x
Now use series expansion of l n ( 1 + x ) and resultant integrals can also be easily evaluated using Integration by Parts.
By the way, Anish how did you type that solution so fast? It takes me ages to type anything in LaTeX.
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I did in same way as you!
Nice solution.
I see that you recently wrote your first solution. So, if you keep posting solutions, you can get pretty fast at writing them.
@Anish Puthuraya Can you please post a solution to A tank full of helium in space . I get v = M f R T , where f are degrees of freedom.
This is another approach in addition to Anish's solution. From the formulation of Dirichlet eta function we have: η ( s ) = ( 1 − 2 1 − s ) ζ ( s ) and η ( s ) = Γ ( s ) 1 ∫ 0 ∞ 1 + e x x s − 1 d x . where Γ ( s ) is gamma function and Γ ( s ) = ( s − 1 ) ! for s ∈ Z + .
Therefore, the solution of the integral becomes straightforward by using Dirichlet eta function. ∫ 0 ∞ 1 + e x x 2 d x = ( 1 − 2 − 2 ) Γ ( 3 ) ζ ( 3 ) = 4 3 ⋅ 2 ! ⋅ 1 . 2 0 2 0 5 = 1 . 8 0 3 0 8
# Q . E . D . #
@Anish Puthuraya , @Pranav Arora , and @Karthik Kannan . Sorry guys, I win! Mine is shorter. Hehehe... (^_^)V
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Hi-Five! you won!
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You, @Pranav Arora , and @Karthik Kannan are awesome. It never crossed my mind using IBP. Nice work guys! (y) (y)
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@Tunk-Fey Ariawan – But how do you prove that integral representation of η ( s ) ?
Its always great to see different approaches to the same problem, thank you for sharing this! :)
(Though this one went above my head, I am not introduced to gamma functions yet. :P )
First of all, note that
1 + e x 1 = e x 1 ( 1 + e x 1 1 ) = e x 1 k = 0 ∑ ∞ e − k x ( − 1 ) k = k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) k e − x ( k + 1 ) ∣ e x ∣ < 1
Then
∫ 0 ∞ 1 + e x x 2 d x = k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) k ∫ 0 ∞ x 2 e − x ( k + 1 ) d x
Now, integration by parts will give us
∫ 0 ∞ x 2 e − x ( k + 1 ) d x = − ( k + 1 x 2 e − x ( k + 1 ) ) 0 ∞ + 2 ∫ 0 ∞ x k + 1 e − x ( k + 1 ) d x
And
∫ 0 ∞ x k + 1 e − x ( k + 1 ) d x = − ( k + 1 x e − x ( k + 1 ) ) 0 ∞ + ∫ 0 ∞ ( k + 1 ) 2 e − x ( k + 1 ) d x
Therefore
∫ 0 ∞ x 2 e − x ( k + 1 ) d x = − ( k + 1 x 2 e − x ( k + 1 ) ) 0 ∞ − 2 ( k + 1 x e − x ( k + 1 ) ) 0 ∞ + 2 ∫ 0 ∞ ( k + 1 ) 2 e − x ( k + 1 ) d x
Now using L'Hospital
x → ∞ lim e x ( k + 1 ) x 2 = x → ∞ lim ( k + 1 ) e x ( k + 1 ) 2 x = ( k + 1 ) 2 2 x → ∞ lim e x ( k + 1 ) 1 = 0
And therefore
∫ 0 ∞ x 2 e − x ( k + 1 ) d x = 2 ∫ 0 ∞ ( k + 1 ) 2 e − x ( k + 1 ) d x = − 2 ( ( k + 1 ) 3 e − x ( k + 1 ) ) 0 ∞ = 2 ( k + 1 1 ) 3
Thus the original integral is
∫ 0 ∞ 1 + e x x 2 d x = 2 k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) k ( k + 1 1 ) 3 = 2 n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) n − 1 n 3 1 = ( 8 7 − 8 1 ) ζ ( 3 ) ≈ 1 . 8 0 3
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Im very weak in this concept, so please, if the following is not the cleanest method to solve the problem, then comment below about it.
I ( k ) = ∫ 0 ∞ 1 + e k x x 2 d x
I ′ ( k ) = ∫ 0 ∞ ( 1 + e k x ) 2 − x 3 e k x d x
Let 1 + e k x = t
I ′ ( k ) = k 4 − 1 ∫ 2 ∞ t 2 ( ln ( t − 1 ) ) 3 d t
This integral can be easily evaluated using the expansion of ln ( t − 1 ) around the point t = 2
I ′ ( k ) = k 4 − 1 2 9 ζ ( 3 )
I ( k ) = 2 9 ζ ( 3 ) ∫ k 4 − 1
I ( k ) = 2 9 ζ ( 3 ) 3 k 3 1
Substituting k = 1 to get the required integral, we have,
I ( 1 ) = 2 3 ζ ( 3 ) = 1 . 8 0 3 0 8