AOD maximum?

Geometry Level 5

For real x x , find the maximum real value of ( sin 1 x ) 2 + ( cos 1 x ) 2 (\sin^{-1} x)^2+(\cos^{-1} x)^2 .


The answer is 12.32.

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5 solutions

Aakarshit Uppal
Jan 25, 2015

GRAPHICAL METHOD -

The expression can be written as

( sin 1 x ) 2 + ( cos 1 x ) 2 = ( sin 1 x ) 2 + ( cos 1 x ) 2 (|\sin^{-1} x|)^2 + (|\cos^{-1} x|)^2 = (|\sin^{-1} x|)^2 + (\cos^{-1} x)^2

(Because cos 1 x = cos 1 x |\cos^{-1} x| = \cos^{-1} x )

Sketching the graphs for both sin 1 x |\sin^{-1} x| and cos 1 x \cos^{-1} x

If we observe the graphs of sin 1 x |\sin^{-1} x| and cos 1 x \cos^{-1} x , we see that sin 1 x |\sin^{-1} x| attains maximum value at x = 1 x = -1 and x = 1 x = 1 whereas cos 1 x \cos^{-1} x attains maximum value at x = 1 x = -1 .

Thus, ( sin 1 x ) 2 + ( cos 1 x ) 2 (\sin^{-1} x)^2 + (\cos^{-1} x)^2 must have maximum value at x = 1 x = -1

Putting x = 1 x = -1 , We get -

( sin 1 ( 1 ) ) 2 + ( cos 1 ( 1 ) ) 2 (\sin^{-1} (-1))^2 + (\cos^{-1} (-1))^2

= ( π 2 ) 2 + ( π ) 2 = \Big(\frac{-\pi}{2}\Big)^2 + (\pi)^2

= 5 4 ( π ) 2 = 12.337 = \frac{5}{4} (\pi)^2 = \boxed{\color{#20A900}{12.337}}

Nice graph. That helps to explain why the maximum occurs at 1 -1 .

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years, 4 months ago

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Thanks Señor!

Aakarshit Uppal - 6 years, 4 months ago

Hi , even I used a graphical approach !!

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 4 months ago

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Yes, graphs always make everything easier and more fun!

Aakarshit Uppal - 6 years, 4 months ago

Same method. The answer is obvious if you think of the graphs!

Michael Fuller - 5 years, 6 months ago
Aniket Verma
Mar 5, 2015

( s i n 1 x ) 2 + ( c o s 1 x ) 2 = ( s i n 1 x + c o s 1 x ) 2 2 s i n 1 x × c o s 1 x (sin^{-1}x)^2 + (cos^{-1}x)^2 = (sin^{-1}x +cos^{-1}x)^2 -2sin^{-1}x\times cos^{-1}x

( s i n 1 x ) 2 + ( c o s 1 x ) 2 = π 2 4 2 s i n 1 x × c o s 1 x \Rightarrow (sin^{-1}x)^2 + (cos^{-1}x)^2 = \frac{\pi ^2}{4} - 2sin^{-1}x\times cos^{-1}x

For maximum value of ( s i n 1 x ) 2 + ( c o s 1 x ) 2 (sin^{-1}x)^2 + (cos^{-1}x)^2 , 2 s i n 1 x × c o s 1 x 2sin^{-1}x\times cos^{-1}x should be minimum & its minimum value occurs at x = 1 x=-1 .

Hence maximum value of ( s i n 1 x ) 2 + ( c o s 1 x ) 2 = π 2 4 2 × ( π 2 ) × π (sin^{-1}x)^2 + (cos^{-1}x)^2 = \dfrac{\pi ^2}{4} -2\times (\dfrac{-\pi}{2})\times \pi

= 5 π 2 4 12.32 = \dfrac{5\pi ^2}{4} \approx 12.32

Paola Ramírez
Jan 19, 2015

Use chain rule [ ( s i n 1 x ) 2 + ( c o s 1 x ) 2 ] = 2 ( sin 1 x cos 1 x ) 1 x 2 [(sin^{-1} x)^2+(cos^{-1} x)^2]'=\frac{2(\sin^{-1}x-\cos^{-1}x)}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}

To find maximum

2 ( sin 1 x cos 1 x ) 1 x 2 = 0 \frac{2(\sin^{-1}x-\cos^{-1}x)}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}=0

Minimun 2 ( sin 1 x cos 1 x ) = 0 2(\sin^{-1}x-\cos^{-1}x)=0

Maximum 1 x 2 = 0 \sqrt{1-x^2}=0

Then maximum is when x = 1 x=-1 ( s i n 1 1 ) 2 + ( c o s 1 1 ) 2 = π 2 4 + π 2 = 5 π 2 4 (sin^{-1} {-1})^2+(cos^{-1}{-1})^2=\frac{\pi^2}{4}+\pi^2=\boxed{\frac{5\pi^2}{4}}

A little clarification.
Then maximum is when x = 1 : . . . . . . . . . . . . ( s i n 1 1 ) = π 2 D o m i n o f ( s i n 1 x ) x=-1~~\color{#D61F06}{:}............ (sin^{-1} -1)= \color{#D61F06}{-\dfrac{\pi}{2}}\\ Domin~~of~~ (sin^{-1} x)

Niranjan Khanderia - 6 years, 4 months ago

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what is it wrong?

Paola Ramírez - 6 years, 4 months ago

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It is correct. Only a little more explanation. A colon to separate two equation would be better.

Niranjan Khanderia - 6 years, 4 months ago

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@Niranjan Khanderia Oh! thanks sir

Paola Ramírez - 6 years, 4 months ago

But why can't the maximum be at x = 1 x=1 ?

Parag Zode - 6 years, 4 months ago

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It will be the minimum.

Niranjan Khanderia - 6 years, 4 months ago

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Minimum will not be at x=1 , it will be at x=1/sqrt(2)

Shishir G. - 6 years, 2 months ago

Also because f ( 1 ) < f ( 1 ) f(1)<f(-1) , not necessarily the minimun

Paola Ramírez - 6 years, 4 months ago
Lu Chee Ket
Jan 22, 2015

Concerning real numbers, there can be maximum values. Inverse trigonometric functions give angles (in Radians) which are at the same status as logarithmic functions with principal values. For well defined inverse functions, only principal values are concerned. Domain for both of them is from -1 via 0 to 1, while range is from -Pi/ 2 via 0 to Pi/ 2 and 0 via Pi/ 2 to Pi respectively, for a one to one mappings. They are something opposite to the "All Science Teachers Crazy" for positive quadrants. The negative sides are actually taking another quadrants.

Taking mirror images about y = x, y = Asin x is just a curve with infinite slopes at both x = -1 and x = 1 while x = 0 is a point of inflexion. Acos x = Pi/ 2 - Asin x is then another treatment which is quite unusual and implicit in Excel. All streams in mathematics do the same. Acos x simply follows Asin x but not doing own series and own graph! In fact, where insisted, the curve of Acos x is just a mirror about x = 0 plus a raise up of Asin x. From 0 to Pi, Acos x is above y = 0. The greatest difference is obviously on our L.H.S.

y^2 + (Pi/ 2 - y)^2

= 2 y^2 +(- Pi) y + Pi^2/ 4

= 2 (y - Pi/ 4)^2 + Pi^2/ 8

= 2 (-Pi/ 2 - Pi/ 4)^2 + Pi^2/ 8 {Since y = -Pi/ 2 is optimum at x = -1}

= 5 Pi^2/ 4

=12.3370055013617 {Where x = -1 is obviously makes a maximum to contribute.}

I actually simulated with Excel knowing this complicated features so that I shall not get anything wrong. Sqrt (1 - x^2) from derivative tells the location of infinite slopes but x = 1 gives 2.46740110027234 instead and therefore actually doesn't tell. Either justify from Excel or from the above, the maximum values for sum of inverse functions can hardly be derived from other ways, usually.

Derivatives only tell where the turning points are located and not a generally way for determining maximum or minimum.

Arnav Jain
Jun 14, 2015

simpler way to do this is USING THE FACT THAT SINE INVERSE X PLUS COS INVESE X IS Pi/2 NOW (SIN INV X)^2 + (COS INV X)^2 =(SIN INV X + COS INV X)^2 -2(SIN INVX)(COSINV X)

LET {COS INV X= K} to get: =(Pi/4) - (K)(Pi/2-K)

HENCE WE GET A QUADRATIC IN K WHOSE MAX VALUE IS AT 12.32.

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