APMO problem

Algebra Level 5

f ( x 4 + y ) = x 3 f ( x ) + f ( f ( y ) ) \large f(x^4+y)=x^3f(x)+f(f(y))

Let all real-valued functions f f on the reals which have at most finitely many zeros and satisfy for all x x and y y . Find f ( 2016 ) f(2016) .


The answer is 2016.

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3 solutions

\(\begin{array} {} P(x,y): & f(x^4+y) = x^3 f(x) + f(f(y)) \\ P(0,y): & f(y) = f(f(y)) & \small \color{blue} \text{Let }f(y) = a \\ & a = f(a) \implies f(x) = x & \small \color{blue} \text{Putting }f(x) = x \text{ in }P(x,y) \\ P(x,y): & f(x^4+y) = x^3 f(x) + f(f(y)) \\ & f(x^4+y) = x^4 + f(y) \\ & f(x^4+y) = x^4 + y & \small \color{blue} \text{Proving that }f(x) = x \end{array} \)

Therefore, f ( 2016 ) = 2016 f(2016) = \boxed{2016} .

OFF TOPIC:Which editor do u use

Mehul Chaturvedi - 5 years, 3 months ago

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What do you mean? I use LaTex here. What graphing software you use?

Chew-Seong Cheong - 5 years, 3 months ago

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I mean, do you type the latex commands on ur own or use some LATEX editor?

First I draw the graph by pen and paper and then use Desmos for illustrating my solution.(I only post the solutions,which can be computed with just Pen,Paper and Scale)

Mehul Chaturvedi - 5 years, 3 months ago

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@Mehul Chaturvedi No, I don't have any other LaTex editor except using the Brilliant's one here, though I wish I have.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 5 years, 3 months ago

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Can't we apply this method of equal degrees of LHS and RHS only to polynomials? But it isn't mentioned in the question that the function is of polynomial form.

Arihant Samar - 5 years, 3 months ago

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When it is mentioned that it has finite zeros means f ( x ) = k = 1 n ( x a k ) f(x) = \prod_{k=1}^n (x-a_k) .

Chew-Seong Cheong - 5 years, 3 months ago

Thanks, I have changed the solution. This one no assuming it is polynomial.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 3 years ago

Doubt: Can't we take x=0 and directly get f(y)=y?

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 3 months ago

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It must be for all real values of x x not just x = 0 x=0 .

Chew-Seong Cheong - 5 years, 3 months ago

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Yes. Since 0 comes in the set of real numbers, can't we use it directly?

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 3 months ago

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@Aditya Kumar Of course, it gives us the right answer. But it does not conclusively show us that it applies to all x x . We are talking about a better solution not just the answer.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 5 years, 3 months ago

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@Chew-Seong Cheong Thanks for clarifying sir!

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 3 months ago

You are right. I have changed the solution. This one no assuming it is polynomial.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 3 years ago

Who said this is a polynomial function....it may be some like lnx or sinx or e^x then how do u argue on degree??

rajdeep brahma - 3 years ago

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It is mention "at most finitely many zeros". I am not claiming my solution is absolute. You can also come up with your solution.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 3 years ago

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Yeah I am facing problem.....not got till now

rajdeep brahma - 3 years ago

but function having finite roots may not be polynomial I gues??

rajdeep brahma - 3 years ago

I have changed the solution. This one no assuming it is polynomial.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 3 years ago

This is good and perfect upvoted!!!!

rajdeep brahma - 3 years ago

Can't Imagine that it is an APMO Problem.Is it really an apmo problem?But a nice solution indeed.

D K - 2 years, 10 months ago
Mehul Chaturvedi
Mar 7, 2016

Putting x = 0 x = 0 , we get f ( y ) = f ( f ( y ) ) f(y) = f(f(y)) for all y y ...........(1).

Putting x = 1 , y = 0 x = 1, y = 0 , we get f ( 0 ) = 0 f(0) = 0 . Hence putting y = 0 y = 0 , f ( x 4 ) = x 3 f ( x ) f(x^4) = x^3f(x) ..........(2).

If f ( 1 ) = 0 f(1) = 0 , then f ( 2 ) = f ( 1 + 1 ) = f ( 1 ) + f ( 1 ) = 0 f(2) = f(1 + 1) = f(1) + f(1) = 0 , so f ( 3 ) = f ( 1 + 2 ) = f ( 1 ) + f ( 2 ) = 0 f(3) = f(1 + 2) = f(1) + f(2) = 0 and so on. Contradiction (only finitely many zeros). So f ( 1 ) = k f(1) = k for some non-zero k k . By (1), f ( k ) = k f(k) = k .

Suppose f ( h ) = 0 f(h) = 0 for some h h not 0 0 or 1 1 . Then f ( h 4 ) = h 3 f ( h ) = 0 f(h^4) = h^3f(h) = 0 , so f ( x ) = 0 f(x) = 0 for any of the distinct values x = h , h 4 , h 16 , h 64 x = h, h^4, h^{16}, h^{64} , ... . Contradiction (only finitely many zeros). So f ( h ) f(h) is not 0 0 for any non-zero h h .

Given any x x , put z = f ( x 4 ) x 4 z = f(x^4) - x^4 . Then f ( x 4 ) = f ( f ( x 4 ) ) = f ( x 4 + z ) = x 3 f ( x ) + f ( z ) f(x^4) = f(f(x^4)) = f(x^4 + z) = x^3f(x) + f(z) . But f ( x 4 ) = x 3 f ( x ) f(x^4) = x^3f(x) , so f ( z ) = 0 f(z) = 0 . Hence z = 0 z = 0 . So for any positive x we have f ( x ) = x f(x) = x . But f ( x 4 ) = f ( ( x ) 4 ) = x 3 f ( x ) f(x^4) = f( (-x)^4 ) = - x^3 f(-x) . Hence f ( x ) = f ( x ) f(-x) = - f(x) . So f ( x ) = x f(x) = x for all x x .

perfect upvotes !!!!

rajdeep brahma - 3 years ago
Prabhat Sharma
Mar 8, 2016

Put X=0 ,remaining expression is f(y)= f(f(y)) From above expression and observation we have f(y)=y

u can never ever say that stuff .... how do u know that the function assume all real values that u r replacing f(x) by x....prove that f(x) is surjective then ur statement may have some merit.

rajdeep brahma - 3 years ago

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