How many of the following 99 integers are primes?
1 0 0 ! + 2 , 1 0 0 ! + 3 , 1 0 0 ! + 4 , … , 1 0 0 ! + 1 0 0
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Nicely done! Bonus question: If 1 0 0 ! + k is a prime number for a positive integer k , then prove that the smallest possible value of k is a prime number.
Is the answer to that 101, as 101 is the smallest prime number that is above 100.
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No, I don't think so. This problem gives us a list of numbers and asks how many of them are prime. As shown above, none of those numbers are prime, so the answer is 0.
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@André Vicente Milack Aamir was referencing the bonus question. The answer is indeed 101.
I understood that, (100! + k)/k = 100!/k + 1 and since 100! is not a multiple of any prime >100 the first prime >100 will be k. But I dont know how to prove it.
Why do you think that 100!+101 isn't divided by any prime between 103 and √(100!+101). That is a lot primes,so you must prove it is prime.
is 100! +1 prime??
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100! + 1 is divisible by 101 100! = -1 mod 101 so 100!+1 = 0 mod 101 Therefore 100! + 1 is divisible by 101
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Who u can say that it is divisible by 101
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@Nivedit Jain – By wilsons theorem 100! = -1 mod 101 so 100! + 1 = 0 mod 101 This means 100! + 1 is divisible by 101
100! +1 is the right answer
Smallest k must be prime, because if it is composite, it will be much larger than the smallest k (composite k could be 101.101)
100!+x = x(100!/x + 1). This is not prime for 1<x<=100, since 100! is clearly divisible by x. Therefore, none of the 99 integers are primes.
Correct! Thank you!
n ! + m is divisible by m if n ≥ m .
Good, although it would be better to see the working for your solution. Bonus question: Can you explain the meaning for the title of this question (Arbitrary gaps)?
We can throw in 1 0 0 ! + 1 into the mix as well and still get an answer of 0 by way of Wilson's Theorem and the fact that 1 0 1 is prime.
I suppose the next question would be to find the least positive integer k such that 1 0 0 ! + k is prime.
@Challenge Master I'm not sure but the title must be referring to Prime gaps I suppose?
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Yes, he/she is referring to prime gaps, because we can set n arbitrarily large, the value of n ! + m for n ≥ m will always be a composite number, thus there is no maximum gaps between consecutive prime numbers.
I try to discover what is k.
Final solution too.
I decided to prove the more general statement that, given a number c = a ! + b with a ≥ b , c is always composite
Assume we have a number n such that n = m ! + k for m , k ∈ N where m ≥ k > 1 .
By definition of the factorial, m ! is divisible by any integers less than or equal to m , including k .
Therefore, m ! = k ∗ r for some r ∈ N . Thus:
n = k ∗ r + k
= k ( r + 1 )
The only way that this could be prime is if either k or r + 1 was 1 and the other was prime. However, by definition, k > 1 , and r + 1 = 1 → r = 0 , which would mean k ∗ r = 0 and, therefore, m ! = 0 , which is never true in the real numbers.
∴ m ! + k is not prime Q.E.D.
As a corollary, if we have a number m ! + k and some a ∣ k where 1 < a ≤ m , the number can be rewritten as a ∗ ( a m ! + a k ) and is, therefore, composite. Therefore, if m ! + k is prime and k is composite, k 's lower bound is ( m + 1 ) 2
easy if we consider 100! we can write it in the form of 2 3 4*......100 so for each no we can take something common which means all are non prime
Since 1 0 0 ! has many factors like 2 , 3 , 5 , 7 , 1 1 , 1 3 , ⋯ , so no prime numbers in 1 0 0 ! + 2 , 1 0 0 ! + 3 , 1 0 0 ! + 4 , ⋯ , 1 0 0 ! + 9 8 , 1 0 0 ! + 9 9 , 1 0 0 ! + 1 0 0 .
Let n be such a number 2 ≤ n ≤ 1 0 0
Now consider 1 0 0 ! + n ,
We can write it as multiple of n ,
→ n × ( n 1 0 0 ! + 1 )
Here n 1 0 0 ! is intezer as 2 ≤ n ≤ 1 0 0 So its a multiple of n and as it is greater than 1. So the number of prime is 0
Since 1 0 0 ! = 1 0 0 ∗ 9 9 ∗ . . . ∗ 2 ∗ 1 , if n is in between 1 and 100, it could be factored out. 1 0 0 ! + n = ( 1 0 0 ∗ 9 9 ∗ . . . . ∗ ( n + 1 ) ∗ n ∗ ( n − 1 ) ∗ . . . ∗ 2 ∗ 1 ) + n = n ( ( 1 0 0 ∗ 9 9 ∗ . . . ∗ ( n + 1 ) ∗ ( n − 1 ) ∗ . . . . ∗ 2 ∗ 1 ) + 1 ) , which is not prime.
100! + n can always be divided by n for any n from 2 to 100, therefore all of these must be composite numbers.
Purely a swag (scientific guess)... but at such large numbers, the likelihood of a prime number existing within a given range of 100 integers is extremely low.
For any integers X and Y , ( ( X ⋅ Y ) + X ) m o d ( X ) is congruent to 0 . Therefore, adding any of the integers 1-100 to 1 0 0 ! will not make it prime.
Because each of the possible integers from 2 to 100 also appears as a factor in 100!, the resulting sum will be a multiple of said secondary addend.
100! is a multiple of 2, 3, 4, ... , 100, because 100! = 1x2x3x4x...x100, so if we choose any k from {2, 3, 4, ... , 100} then 100! + k is also a multiple of k. The language of congruence fits this question well.
I prefer laymen solutions. So I'll offer one. It's noted that 100! + 1 is absent from the problem. Fair enough.
One may also be aware that large factorials end in multiple zeroes because of multiple 2*5 product of primes. One may simply remove all of + evens quickly, as they will divide by 2.
I'd propose to take any arbitrary prime and play with it. I'm going to chose 23. MJ.
Consider 100! + 23.
100! can be rewritten as 23 * 100 * 99 ... * 2 * 1 or simply 23x.
(let x = all the numbers between 1 and 100 be multiplied together except 23)
Hence
100! + 23
can be rewritten as.
23(big number + 1) = 23 (x + 1).
So it as least a product of 2 whole numbers.
Therefore it isn't prime.
Since I chose 23 arbitrarily, I will now add in all solutions for all odds less than 100. Give me a few days.
100! has a common factor with all of 2, 3, 4....., 100 so it is evident that the numbers are divisible by 2, 3, 4....100. Hence none are prime.
We now that m!+k is divisible by k if 0<k<=m, since m=(m)(m-1)...(k)(k-1)(k-2)...(2)(1) . In fact, if we want m consecutive no-prime numbers, we can list them like: (m+1)! + 2, (m+1)! + 3, ...., (m+1)!+m+1
a = 1 0 0 ! + m = m ( m 1 0 0 ! + 1 ) .
m 1 0 0 ! is integer
a is obviously not prime , because has more than 2 factors , m and . m 1 0 0 ! + 1 )
Your phrasing is not all that clear. You should mention that all these numbers are in the form of 1 0 0 ! + m = m ( m 1 0 0 ! + 1 ) for positive integer 2 ≤ m ≤ 1 0 0 . And because m ∣ ( 1 0 0 ! + m ) , then none of them are prime numbers.
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You can divide 1 0 0 ! + n by n ( 1 < n ≤ 1 0 0 ) this way:
n 1 0 0 ! + n = n 1 0 0 ⋅ 9 9 ⋅ . . . ⋅ n ⋅ . . . ⋅ 2 + n = 1 0 0 ⋅ 9 9 ⋅ . . . ⋅ ( n + 1 ) ⋅ ( n − 1 ) ⋅ . . . ⋅ 2 + 1
Therefore, none of these numbers are primes!