i = 1 ∑ n 3 i + 2 x + i = i = 1 ∑ n x + 3 i + 1 i + 1
Solve for real x .
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So yes, you showed that in the particular case of i = 1 , n = 1 , we must have x = 1 .
What about all other cases? Is x = 1 a solution? Is x = 1 the only real solution?
Is there a solution for the other cases? I would like to know. Thanks
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There won't be any other cases. If you do some algebraic manipulation the equation will become as ( x − 1 ) × i = 1 ∑ n ( 3 i + 2 ) ( x + 3 i + 1 ) x + 4 i + 2 = 0 i f x = 1 t h e n i = 1 ∑ n ( 3 i + 2 ) ( x + 3 i + 1 ) x + 4 i + 2 = 0 f o r l a r g e n i = 1 ∑ n ( 3 i + 2 ) ( x + 3 i + 1 ) x + 4 i + 2 > 0 Hence the only solution to this problem is x = 1
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For large n ? What happens when n is not large, and x is a negative number?
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@Satyajit Mohanty – There is a possibility of getting a negative number, hence possibility of getting other solutions too.
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@Som Ghosh – Yeah! But you need to prove the impossibility of your so called possibility :D
Thank you. Really nice solution!
I have changed the last paragraph to explain that the answer is unique.
I am seriously sorry for this.By comparing both sides we will see the minimum value of x is:- x + i = i + 1 a n d x + 3 i + 1 = 3 i + 2
From this we see x = 1
You really have an Indian Brain then :D
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bhai tukka toh sahi mara h maine bhi aise hi kia hai but i know imaginary solution doesn't exist.
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i = 1 ∑ n 3 i + 2 x + i = i = 1 ∑ n x + 3 i + 1 i + 1
For the equation to be true for all i and n :
3 i + 2 x + i ( x + i ) ( x + 3 i + 1 ) x 2 + ( i + 3 i + 1 ) x 3 i 2 + i x 2 + ( 4 i + 1 ) x − ( 4 i + 2 ) ( x − 1 ) ( x + 4 i + 2 ) = x + 3 i + 1 i + 1 = ( i + 1 ) ( 3 i + 2 ) = 3 i 2 + 2 i + 3 i + 2 = 0 = 0
Since x + 4 i + 2 = 0 for all i , then the only solution is x = 1 . We see that when x = 1 , L H S ≡ R H S .