Are you smarter than me? 5

Calculus Level 5

n = 1 n + 1 n ( n + 2 ) 2 n + 3 = ? \large \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{n+1}{n(n+2) 2^{n+3}} = \ ?

Give your answer to 4 decimal places.


The answer is 0.0603.

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1 solution

Note first that n + 1 n ( n + 2 ) = 1 2 ( 1 n + 1 n + 2 ) \dfrac{n+1}{n(n + 2)} = \dfrac{1}{2}*(\dfrac{1}{n} + \dfrac{1}{n+2}) .

The sum can then be written as

n = 1 ( 1 2 n + 4 ) ( 1 n + 1 n + 2 ) = \displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (\dfrac{1}{2^{n+4}})*(\dfrac{1}{n} + \dfrac{1}{n+2}) =

( 1 16 ) n = 1 1 n 2 n + ( 1 4 ) n = 1 1 ( n + 2 ) 2 n + 2 = (\dfrac{1}{16})*\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n*2^{n}} + (\dfrac{1}{4})*\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{(n+2)*2^{n+2}} =

( 1 16 ) n = 1 1 n 2 n + ( 1 4 ) ( n = 1 1 n 2 n 1 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 ) = (\dfrac{1}{16})*\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n*2^{n}} + (\dfrac{1}{4})*(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n*2^{n}} - \dfrac{1}{1*2^{1}} - \dfrac{1}{2*2^{2}}) =

( 5 16 ) n = 1 1 n 2 n 5 32 = (\dfrac{5}{16})*\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n*2^{n}} - \frac{5}{32} =

( 5 32 ) ( 2 ln ( 2 ) 1 ) = 0.0603584939..... \dfrac{5}{32})*(2\ln(2) - 1) = \boxed{0.0603584939.....} ,

where I used the fact that n = 1 1 n 2 n = ln ( 2 ) \displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n*2^{n}} = \ln(2) , (equation ( 19 ) (19) here ).

Did the same! Nice! BTW, is there any way to guess about the natural logarithm(it took me a lot of time to work out where this - n = 1 1 n 2 n \sum _{ n\quad =\quad 1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ { n*2 }^{ n } } } will converge and then finally I had to cheat:( )

Kartik Sharma - 6 years, 6 months ago

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If you can @brian charlesworth , please prove it too( which you have used as a fact).

Kartik Sharma - 6 years, 6 months ago

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We know that 1 1 x = n = 0 x n \displaystyle \frac{1}{1-x}=\sum _{ n=0 }^{ \infty }{ { x }^{ n } }

Integrating both sides we get :

l n ( 1 x ) + C = n = 0 x n + 1 n + 1 \displaystyle -ln(1-x)+C=\sum _{ n=0 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { { x }^{ n+1 } }{ n+1 } }

Put x = 0 x=0 to get C = 0 C=0

Hence l n ( 1 x ) = n = 1 x n n \displaystyle -ln(1-x)=\sum _{ n=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { { x }^{ n } }{ n } }

Put x = 1 2 x=\frac{1}{2} , to get the desired result.

Ronak Agarwal - 6 years, 6 months ago

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@Ronak Agarwal Thanks! It was nice and easy too.

Kartik Sharma - 6 years, 6 months ago

Perrrfect solution

Mehul Chaturvedi - 6 years, 6 months ago

Brian u should try a Higher Version of this problem its a challenging question

Mehul Chaturvedi - 6 years, 6 months ago

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