Take a point A on the graph of y = f ( x ) , and let B be a point on the graph of y = x such that A B is parallel to the y -axis. Call the area bounded by these two curves and the segment A B as R .
Now, let C be a point on the y -axis such that A C is parallel to the x -axis. Call the area bounded by the curve y = f ( x ) , the y -axis, and the segment A C as S .
Given that the function f is continuous and the areas R and S are equal, which of the following statements is true?
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Multiplying (ii) through by the integrating factor now yields.... ? Huh?
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If you look closely, grouping the left side of (ii) in one fraction results in almost the quotient rule of derivation. Thus, multiplying by the integrating factor means you would be adding the missing part needed for the reversion of the quotient rule (for the integration, so the name).
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Holy Toledo, never would have seen that
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@John Carpenter – It's a standard technique in solving differential equations that everyone learns in class, Search it up, it's a famous technique literally called solving differential equations by integrating factors.
But the function should also satisfy f(0) =0 which you have taken up during solving the equation. Hence we will get a definite value of 'C' Which contradict with your result..
Partial solution:
Note that f ( x ) = 2 x + k x , where k ≥ 0 , are solutions.
From the figure one can immediately deduce: x A = x B and y A = y C .
Express R and S via integrals:
R = ∫ 0 x A ( f ( x ) − x ) d x
S = x A y A − ∫ 0 x A f ( x ) d x
R = S ⇔ ∫ 0 x A f ( x ) d x − 3 2 x A 2 3 ∫ 0 x A x d x = x A y A − ∫ 0 x A f ( x ) d x
⇔ ∫ 0 x A f ( x ) d x = 3 1 x A 2 3 + 2 1 x A y A , i.e. F ( 0 ) = 0
Find a singular f to solve the equation:
e.g. f ( x ) = 2 1 x + 2 1 y A
⇒ F ( x ) = 3 1 x 2 3 + 2 1 x y A , which satisfies F ( 0 ) = 0 .
To obtain infinitely many solutions, add a paramterized term to F ( x ) such that it doesn't change the value of ∫ 0 x A f ( x ) d x :
F n ( x ) = 3 1 x 2 3 + 2 1 x y A + sin ( x A 2 π x ± n π )
⇒ f n ( x ) = 2 1 x + 2 1 y A + x A 2 π cos ( x A 2 π x ± n π ) .
It can easily be seen that:
∫ 0 x A f n ( x ) d x = [ 3 1 x 2 3 + 2 1 x y A + sin ( x A 2 π x ± n π ) ] 0 x A = 3 1 x A 2 3 + 2 1 x A y A + 0 sin ( ( 2 + n ) π ) − 0 sin ( n π ) = 3 1 x A 2 3 + 2 1 x A y A
which proves that infinitely many f ( x ) exist for this problem set.
First, ∀ x ≥ 0 , ∫ 0 x f ( x ) − f ( t ) d t = ∫ 0 x f ( t ) − t d t thus ∀ x > 0 , f ′ ( x ) = f ( x ) / x + g ( x ) where g is partially contiguous. Using Cauchy linear theorem there is a real vector family of such f functions. Moreover, f = 0 because g ( 1 ) = 0 . There are infinitely many such f functions.
When the two Areas R and S are evaluated and equated it's found that the expression doesn't contain f (x) which implies that out can be anything.
Alternatively you can compute the integral ∫ 0 B ( f − x ) d x and set this equal to B C − ∫ 0 B ( f . d x ) where B is the extreme x co-ordinate (on right) now R = S gives 2 . ∫ 0 B ( f . d x ) = B C + ∫ 0 B ( x d x ) = B C + 3 2 B 2 3 Also note that this implies ∫ 0 B ( f − x ) . d x = 3 1 B 2 3 the later implies, ∫ 0 B ( f . d x ) = 3 1 B 2 3 + 2 B 2 this implies B = C
Although it was not necessary to show that to have consistency B = C is necessary and sufficient yet this scales down the degree of freedom in x-y directions to 1; i.e in the infinite multiset S ( n × n ) we are only left with S ( n ) subset; Thus only n 1 of the R × R contributes to our choice;
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Let us define the regions R = ∫ 0 x 0 f ( x ) − x d x and S = ∫ 0 x 0 f ( x 0 ) − f ( x ) d x about the point x = x 0 . If R = S area-wise, then we obtain:
∫ 0 x 0 f ( x ) − x d x = ∫ 0 x 0 f ( x 0 ) − f ( x ) d x ⇒ 2 ∫ 0 x 0 f ( x ) d x = x 0 ⋅ f ( x 0 ) + ∫ 0 x 0 x d x (i)
If we now differentiate both sides of (i) with respect to x 0 , we next obtain a first-order ODE:
2 f ( x 0 ) = f ( x 0 ) + x 0 f ′ ( x 0 ) + x 0 ⇒ f ′ ( x 0 ) − x 0 1 ⋅ f ( x 0 ) = − x 0 1 (ii)
Multiplying (ii) through by the integrating factor x 0 1 now yields:
( x 0 f ( x 0 ) ) ′ = − x 0 3 / 2 1 ⇒ x 0 f ( x 0 ) = x 0 2 + C ⇒ f ( x 0 ) = 2 x 0 + C ⋅ x 0 (iii)
Hence, there is an infinite number of functions f ( x ) that satisfy the above area condition.