As easy as e^pi

Calculus Level 5

n = 1 1 n 2 2 = A B i π C C [ e i π D + e i π D e i π E e i π E ] \large \displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n^{2}-2} = \dfrac{A}{B} -\dfrac{i\pi}{C\sqrt{C}}\left[\dfrac{e^{i\pi\sqrt{D}}+e^{-i\pi\sqrt{D}}}{e^{i\pi\sqrt{E}}-e^{-i\pi\sqrt{E}}}\right] If the above equation is true for positive and not necessarily distinct integers A , B , C , D , E A,B,C,D,E
where C , D , E C,D,E can't be factorised further, and i = 1 i=\sqrt{-1} , then
find, ϕ ( A + B + C + D + E ) \large \phi(A+B+C+D+E) where ϕ ( n ) \phi(n) is the Euler-Totient Function


The answer is 10.

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1 solution

Tanishq Varshney
Sep 26, 2015

I actually don't know the proof but

n = 1 1 n 2 a 2 = 1 2 a 2 π 2 a cot ( π a ) \large{\displaystyle \sum^{\infty}_{n=1} \frac{1}{n^2-a^2}=\frac{1}{2a^2}-\frac{\pi}{2a}\cot (\pi a)}

now coth ( i z ) = cot ( z ) = i e i z + e i z e i z e i z \large{\coth (iz)=\cot (z)=i \frac{e^{i z}+e^{-i z}}{e^{i z}-e^{-i z}}}

n = 1 1 n 2 a 2 = 1 2 a 2 i π 2 a [ e i π a + e i π a e i π a e i π a ] \large{\displaystyle \sum^{\infty}_{n=1} \frac{1}{n^2-a^2}=\frac{1}{2a^2}-\frac{i \pi}{2a}\left[ \frac { { e }^{ i\pi a }+{ e }^{ -i\pi a } }{ { e }^{ i\pi a }-{ e }^{ -i\pi a } } \right] }

Here a = 2 a=\sqrt{2}

n = 1 1 n 2 2 = 1 4 i π 2 2 [ e i π 2 + e i π 2 e i π 2 e i π 2 ] \large{\displaystyle \sum _{ n=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ { n }^{ 2 }-2 } } =\frac { 1 }{ 4 } -\frac { i\pi }{ 2\sqrt { 2 } } \left[ \frac { { e }^{ i\pi \sqrt { 2 } }+{ e }^{ -i\pi \sqrt { 2 } } }{ { e }^{ i\pi \sqrt { 2 } }-{ e }^{ -i\pi \sqrt { 2 } } } \right] }

Euler’s totient function (or Euler’s phi function), denoted as φ(n) or ϕ(n), is an arithmetic function that counts the positive integers less than or equal to n that are relatively prime to n \text{ Euler's totient function (or Euler's phi function), denoted as φ(n) or ϕ(n), is an arithmetic function that counts the positive integers less than or equal to n that are relatively prime to n}

ϕ ( 11 ) = 10 \boxed{\phi(11)=10}

hey @Upanshu Gupta can u drop some hint about your problem

Tanishq Varshney - 5 years, 8 months ago

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Check this out(it's too hot !!:P)

Kunal Gupta - 5 years, 8 months ago

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Oh found the link!

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 8 months ago

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@Pi Han Goh OMG this is monstrous!

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 8 months ago

Whoa!! Everything went over my mind

Tanishq Varshney - 5 years, 8 months ago

I can think of two ways to prove your summation -

  1. Laplace Transform, 2. Digamma Function

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 8 months ago

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@Tanishq Varshney I think you might be interested.

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 8 months ago

Yup I am interested in knowing the second method the digamma function one.

Tanishq Varshney - 5 years, 8 months ago

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n = 1 1 ( n a ) ( n + a ) = 1 2 a n = 1 1 n a 1 n + a \displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{(n-a)(n+a)}} = \frac{1}{2a}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{n-a} - \frac{1}{n+a}}

= 1 2 a ( ψ ( 1 a ) + ψ ( 1 + a ) ) \displaystyle = \frac{1}{2a}(-\psi(1 - a) + \psi(1 + a)) [by the Harmonic definition]

= 1 2 a ( ψ ( a ) + 1 a ψ ( 1 a ) ) \displaystyle = \frac{1}{2a}(\psi(a) + \frac{1}{a} - \psi(1 -a))

= 1 2 a ( 1 a π cot ( π a ) ) \displaystyle = \frac{1}{2a}(\frac{1}{a} - \pi \cot(\pi a)) [Using Reflection Formula]

= 1 2 a 2 π 2 a cot ( π a ) \displaystyle = \frac{1}{2a^2} - \frac{\pi}{2a} \cot(\pi a)

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 8 months ago

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@Kartik Sharma Well, that was quick and it's good that you chose the 2nd option because the Laplace one is quite difficult and I too only know its theory. The working of the following integral is quite hard.

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 8 months ago

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@Kartik Sharma Thanx a lot. Can u suggest me some material for complex analysis

Tanishq Varshney - 5 years, 8 months ago

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@Tanishq Varshney Long Answer : Well, complex analysis is really hard to get by. There are many sources which MSE answers give like Rudin, etc. But I'd say why not climb the stairs rather than use a lift? I mean yeah, it might seem that "I am confident of getting complex analysis and let's just learn it". But if you won't mind, the same thing happened with me. I tried to learn Complex Analysis 4-5 months ago and surprisingly I got it but 2 months later, I thought well, what was it anyway? And I had no answer. I am so depressed lately for the same reason. I know things but I regret I couldn't enjoy it. For the same reason, I am reading "Advanced Calculus - Wilfried Kaplan" right from the beginning and just loving the differential, Vector calculus and all that. I shouldn't share you my experience because you have it more but still it's just a feeling I wanted to share.

Short answer: Check out the MSE answer(you can google that)! It's way better than I can ever tell you. And BTW, I learnt it from some lecture notes of a college(while it never felt like a note though). You can check out the lecture notes too! I will try to add the link to that too once I found.

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 8 months ago

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@Kartik Sharma Besides, I think you should not read the long answer. I was just not mentally sound while writing that(and I can't edit)

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 8 months ago

@Tanishq Varshney I tried to prove the above result using the integration method of yours, but I got stuck at last! :(

Kunal Gupta - 5 years, 8 months ago

Nice solution.

D K - 2 years, 10 months ago

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