n
=
1
∑
∞
n
2
−
2
1
=
B
A
−
C
C
i
π
⎣
⎡
e
i
π
E
−
e
−
i
π
E
e
i
π
D
+
e
−
i
π
D
⎦
⎤
If the above equation is true for positive and not necessarily distinct integers
A
,
B
,
C
,
D
,
E
where
C
,
D
,
E
can't be factorised further, and
i
=
−
1
, then
find,
ϕ
(
A
+
B
+
C
+
D
+
E
)
where
ϕ
(
n
)
is the Euler-Totient Function
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hey @Upanshu Gupta can u drop some hint about your problem
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Check this out(it's too hot !!:P)
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Oh found the link!
Whoa!! Everything went over my mind
I can think of two ways to prove your summation -
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@Tanishq Varshney I think you might be interested.
Yup I am interested in knowing the second method the digamma function one.
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n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n − a ) ( n + a ) 1 = 2 a 1 n = 1 ∑ ∞ n − a 1 − n + a 1
= 2 a 1 ( − ψ ( 1 − a ) + ψ ( 1 + a ) ) [by the Harmonic definition]
= 2 a 1 ( ψ ( a ) + a 1 − ψ ( 1 − a ) )
= 2 a 1 ( a 1 − π cot ( π a ) ) [Using Reflection Formula]
= 2 a 2 1 − 2 a π cot ( π a )
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@Kartik Sharma – Well, that was quick and it's good that you chose the 2nd option because the Laplace one is quite difficult and I too only know its theory. The working of the following integral is quite hard.
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@Kartik Sharma – Thanx a lot. Can u suggest me some material for complex analysis
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@Tanishq Varshney – Long Answer : Well, complex analysis is really hard to get by. There are many sources which MSE answers give like Rudin, etc. But I'd say why not climb the stairs rather than use a lift? I mean yeah, it might seem that "I am confident of getting complex analysis and let's just learn it". But if you won't mind, the same thing happened with me. I tried to learn Complex Analysis 4-5 months ago and surprisingly I got it but 2 months later, I thought well, what was it anyway? And I had no answer. I am so depressed lately for the same reason. I know things but I regret I couldn't enjoy it. For the same reason, I am reading "Advanced Calculus - Wilfried Kaplan" right from the beginning and just loving the differential, Vector calculus and all that. I shouldn't share you my experience because you have it more but still it's just a feeling I wanted to share.
Short answer: Check out the MSE answer(you can google that)! It's way better than I can ever tell you. And BTW, I learnt it from some lecture notes of a college(while it never felt like a note though). You can check out the lecture notes too! I will try to add the link to that too once I found.
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@Kartik Sharma – Besides, I think you should not read the long answer. I was just not mentally sound while writing that(and I can't edit)
@Tanishq Varshney I tried to prove the above result using the integration method of yours, but I got stuck at last! :(
Nice solution.
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I actually don't know the proof but
n = 1 ∑ ∞ n 2 − a 2 1 = 2 a 2 1 − 2 a π cot ( π a )
now coth ( i z ) = cot ( z ) = i e i z − e − i z e i z + e − i z
n = 1 ∑ ∞ n 2 − a 2 1 = 2 a 2 1 − 2 a i π [ e i π a − e − i π a e i π a + e − i π a ]
Here a = 2
n = 1 ∑ ∞ n 2 − 2 1 = 4 1 − 2 2 i π ⎣ ⎡ e i π 2 − e − i π 2 e i π 2 + e − i π 2 ⎦ ⎤
Euler’s totient function (or Euler’s phi function), denoted as φ(n) or ϕ(n), is an arithmetic function that counts the positive integers less than or equal to n that are relatively prime to n
ϕ ( 1 1 ) = 1 0