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Taylor's series nice (+1)
Let f ( x ) = sin x and g ( x ) = x . at x = 0 , f ( x ) = sin 0 = 0 and g ( x ) = x = 0 . So, f ( x ) = g ( x ) = 0 . Now, f ′ ( x ) = cos x and g ′ ( x ) = 1 . Therefore lim x → 0 g ′ ( x ) f ′ ( x ) exists which is equal to 1 . So, applying L'Hôpital's rule. lim x → 0 x sin x = 1 .
There should not be a degree sign there......
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Haha thanks I changed it.
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Haha nice! There is still one on the last line. Btw, I think that L'Hopital's rule should not be used when dueling with this limit because when we are computing derivative of sine function by first principal, we usually have to make use of this limit and this leads to a circular reasoning......
Easier method is to use the Taylor series of sin(x).
x → 0 lim x sin x = x → 0 lim sin x ° = sin 9 0 ° = 1 .
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I suppose Svatejas Shivakumar 's suggestion is as follows:
x → 0 lim x sin x = x → 0 lim ( x 1 ( x − 3 ! x 3 + 5 ! x 5 − . . . ) ) Expand into Maclaurin series = x → 0 lim ( 1 − 3 ! x 2 + 5 ! x 4 − . . . ) = 1