A = x = 0 ∑ n x , B = ∫ 0 n x d x
If n is an integer greater than 1, which of the above numbers yields a larger result?
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Why isn't the sum of A equal to (0+n)*n/2?
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We know that , A = x = 0 ∑ n x = 1 + 2 + 3 + . . . . . + n → ( i ) If we reverse the sum A , the sum remains the same, A = n + ( n − 1 ) + ( n − 2 ) + . . . . . + 1 → ( i i ) ( i ) + ( i i ) , 2 A = ( n + 1 ) + ( n + 1 ) + . . . . . . . + ( n + 1 ) [ n terms ] ⇒ 2 A = n × ( n + 1 ) ⇒ A = 2 n × ( n + 1 )
PS: You can check this if you still have doubts regarding this
If you start counting from o number of terms is n+1 . It will be (0+n)*(n+1)/2
Instead of n/2 it should be (n+1)/2 as there are n+1 terms(counting 0)
But summations only use integer values of n on the scale from zero to n. Integrals account for every single possible value of n. I don't see how the summation can possibly be greater than the integral and I am very confused due to this problem.
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The question states that n is integer and greater than 1
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But it does not say x is an integer.
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@Venkata Joganpalli – If x is an integer greater than 1, which of the above numbers yields a larger result? - what does it mean then?
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@Maeror Madidus – A basic point which seems to miss the attention is the two quantities can not be compared. They are dimensionally different . In the summation the term equivalent to *dx * in the integral is not present.if one is area the other is only length.
go through the real DEFINATION of integration ...(area) ...there is alwaya a small part left ....under the curve .. and summinatiion account for all that
The formulas for summations are only true when i=1 (the part they label x=0) ...... I am pretty sure.....
Good solution!!
A is an upper (Riemann) sum of the increasing function f ( x ) = x between x = 0 and x = n .
and B is lower sum ?
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No, the corresponding lower sum is ∑ x = 0 n − 1 x . The upper sum, A , exceeds the integral B , while the lower sum is less than B .
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I get it now
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@Radinoiu Damian – The lower Riemann integral would be 2 n ( n − 1 )
How can you know the sum inherently is an upper sum? I don't see how the upper bound n can change an upper sum into a lower sum and vice versa. This is how I see it: when x=0, it takes zero as the value until it gets to one, then one until it gets to two, and so on... If anything, it should be equivalent to a lower sum (using left endpoints).
http://pirate.shu.edu/~wachsmut/ira/integ/defs/ul_sum.html
For example, in this definition there's no emphasis placed on the bounds of a sum...
Well, just logic will do. Since they're both of same numbers - we define the Sigma as the addition, whereas the Definite Integral refers to the subtraction.
In what way does integration refer to subtraction?
Think of the integral as an area under a straight line with slope 1. The sum can be interpreted as the area of a stair-step shape which always stays above the y=x line.
A= n(n+1)/2 = n²/2+ n/2 B = n²/2.. .: A = B + n/2 A is greater.
Though the solution looks like A>B... But can we really relate these two quantities? Because A represents some length here, whereas, B stands for area... may be they have just magnitude difference... but that isn't really mean A>B...
(like 100m>10m^2!!! impossible to think!!!)
A has got (n+1)terms = (n+1)(n+2)/2 B = n²/2
Notice from the sigma notation that the first term is for x=0.
if you look at the basic defination of integration ...it states that it is the sum of the areas of the rectangle (of smallest width possible)....and when we take those areas the result (integration ) is always less than the true area (summesion)
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Simplifying A and B we get, A = x = 0 ∑ n x = 2 n × ( n + 1 ) = 2 n 2 + 2 n B = ∫ 0 n x d x = [ 2 x 2 ] 0 n = 2 n 2 Clearly, A > B