Breathing Implies Alive

Calculus Level 5

Suppose f : R R f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} is such that the Riemann integral 0 f \int_{0}^{\infty} f exists (and is finite). Furthermore, assume that f f is smooth.

Which of the following are necessarily true?

  1. lim x f ( x ) \lim_{x \to \infty} f(x) exists.
  2. lim x f ( x ) = 0 \lim_{x \to \infty} f(x) = 0
Neither of them Both 1 and 2 Only 1

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5 solutions

R Mathe
Jun 3, 2018

It is easy to show that there exists a C C^{\infty} function ψ : [ 1 , 1 ] [ 0 , 1 ] \psi:[-1,1]\longrightarrow[0,1] with ψ ( k ) ( 1 ) = ψ ( k ) ( 1 ) = 0 \psi^{(k)}(-1)=\psi^{(k)}(1)=0 for all k 0 k\geq 0 . For example ψ ( t ) = exp ( 1 1 t 2 ) \psi(t)=\exp(-\frac{1}{1-t^{2}}) . (Disclaimer: need to check this particular form, but there definitely exists such a function, as it is used in Functional Analysis.)

Let C : = [ 1 , 1 ] ψ ( 0 , 1 ] C:=\int_{[-1,1]}\psi\in(0,1] . Set f ( t ) = ψ ( 2 n ( t n ) ) f(t)=\psi(2^{n}(t-n)) for t [ n 2 n , n + 2 n ] t\in[n-2^{-n},n+2^{-n}] and n N + n\in\mathbb{N}^{+} and elsewhere f 0 f\equiv 0 . It is not hard to check, that f C ( [ 0 , ) ) f\in C^{\infty}([0,\infty)) due to the boundary conditions on the derivatives of ψ \psi . Moreover [ n 2 n , n + 2 n ] f = 2 n [ 1 , 1 ] ψ = 2 n C \int_{[n-2^{-n},n+2^{-n}]}f=2^{-n}\int_{[-1,1]}\psi= 2^{-n}C . Thus [ 0 , ) f = n 1 2 n C ( 0 , ) \int_{[0,\infty)} f=\sum_{n\geq 1}2^{-n}C\in(0,\infty) . In particular, f f is Riemann-integrable.

On the other hand, f ( n ) = 1 f(n)=1 for all n 1 n\geq 1 , so that 2 is false. And since f ( n + 0.5 ) = 0 f(n+0.5)=0 for all n 1 n\geq 1 , there are two convergent subsequences with t i t_{i}\longrightarrow\infty and different limits of f ( t i ) f(t_{i}) . Hence 1 is false.

0 f ( x ) d x = a \displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty} f(x)dx=a For some a a\in \Re f ( x ) d x = F ( x ) + c \Rightarrow \displaystyle \int f(x)dx=F(x)+c Such that lim x F ( x ) lim x 0 F ( x ) = a \lim_{x\to \infty}F(x)-\lim_{x\to 0} F(x)=a And the last equation says nothing of each limit to exist apart from the other

I am not sure I agree with your solution. Can you explain what these calculations are?

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Sorry, it was a mistake....

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Although it is not immediately clear from the last equation about the existence of the limits or their values, does this count as an actual disproof?

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@Agnishom Chattopadhyay I'm not really sure, I'll wait for someone who is sure this works to know it xD

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@Hjalmar Orellana Soto I agree with the solution by R Mathe.

Abhishek Sinha
Jun 3, 2018

Take f ( x ) = sin 2 ( x ) f(x)=\sin^2(x) , which is a smooth function (and hence, Riemann integrable). We have 0 f ( x ) = , \int_{0}^{\infty} f(x)= \infty, but lim x f ( x ) \lim_{x\to \infty} f(x) does not exist.

Your counter example does not satisfy the first condition. Being Riemann-integrable requires not just that the integral exists, but that it be finite-valued, ie f L 1 ( [ 0 , ) ) f\in L^{1}([0,\infty)) .

R Mathe - 3 years ago
Brian Lie
Mar 29, 2020

Counter example: f ( x ) = sin ( x 2 ) . f\left(x\right)=\sin \left(x^2\right).

Ben Martin
Jun 16, 2018

Let f ( x ) = s i n ( e x ) f (x)=sin (e^x) Then f f is a smooth riemann integrable function without a limit

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