Suppose f : R → R is such that the Riemann integral ∫ 0 ∞ f exists (and is finite). Furthermore, assume that f is smooth.
Which of the following are necessarily true?
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
∫ 0 ∞ f ( x ) d x = a For some a ∈ ℜ ⇒ ∫ f ( x ) d x = F ( x ) + c Such that x → ∞ lim F ( x ) − x → 0 lim F ( x ) = a And the last equation says nothing of each limit to exist apart from the other
I am not sure I agree with your solution. Can you explain what these calculations are?
Log in to reply
Sorry, it was a mistake....
Log in to reply
Although it is not immediately clear from the last equation about the existence of the limits or their values, does this count as an actual disproof?
Log in to reply
@Agnishom Chattopadhyay – I'm not really sure, I'll wait for someone who is sure this works to know it xD
Log in to reply
@Hjalmar Orellana Soto – I agree with the solution by R Mathe.
Take f ( x ) = sin 2 ( x ) , which is a smooth function (and hence, Riemann integrable). We have ∫ 0 ∞ f ( x ) = ∞ , but lim x → ∞ f ( x ) does not exist.
Your counter example does not satisfy the first condition. Being Riemann-integrable requires not just that the integral exists, but that it be finite-valued, ie f ∈ L 1 ( [ 0 , ∞ ) ) .
Counter example: f ( x ) = sin ( x 2 ) .
Let f ( x ) = s i n ( e x ) Then f is a smooth riemann integrable function without a limit
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
It is easy to show that there exists a C ∞ function ψ : [ − 1 , 1 ] ⟶ [ 0 , 1 ] with ψ ( k ) ( − 1 ) = ψ ( k ) ( 1 ) = 0 for all k ≥ 0 . For example ψ ( t ) = exp ( − 1 − t 2 1 ) . (Disclaimer: need to check this particular form, but there definitely exists such a function, as it is used in Functional Analysis.)
Let C : = ∫ [ − 1 , 1 ] ψ ∈ ( 0 , 1 ] . Set f ( t ) = ψ ( 2 n ( t − n ) ) for t ∈ [ n − 2 − n , n + 2 − n ] and n ∈ N + and elsewhere f ≡ 0 . It is not hard to check, that f ∈ C ∞ ( [ 0 , ∞ ) ) due to the boundary conditions on the derivatives of ψ . Moreover ∫ [ n − 2 − n , n + 2 − n ] f = 2 − n ∫ [ − 1 , 1 ] ψ = 2 − n C . Thus ∫ [ 0 , ∞ ) f = ∑ n ≥ 1 2 − n C ∈ ( 0 , ∞ ) . In particular, f is Riemann-integrable.
On the other hand, f ( n ) = 1 for all n ≥ 1 , so that 2 is false. And since f ( n + 0 . 5 ) = 0 for all n ≥ 1 , there are two convergent subsequences with t i ⟶ ∞ and different limits of f ( t i ) . Hence 1 is false.