n 2 + m m 2 − n
Find the number of all positive integers pairs of ( m , n ) for which the above expression will be an integer.
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Given a positive integer m , let n = m 2 . Then n 2 + m m 2 − n = 0 . Thus, there are infinitely many pairs ( m , n ) .
Yeah did the same way
Put n = 1 in the given expression we will get
1 + m m 2 − 1 = m + 1 ( m + 1 ) ( m − 1 ) = m − 1
Here m can be ant positive integer.SO, there are infinitely many solutions
In general we can also have m = n + 1 , in which case both the numerator and denominator simplify to n 2 + n + 1 .
I wonder how many solutions there are with both n > 1 and m − n > 1 . Just a quick check gives ( m , n ) = ( 1 0 , 2 ) as one such solution.
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Yes but I also can not find all solutions where n > 1
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Suppose we have n = 4 , and let m + 1 6 m 2 − 4 = k .
Then after some algebra we require that m = 2 k + k 2 + 6 4 k + 1 6 .
For m to be an integer, we then require that k 2 + 6 4 k + 1 6 = d 2 , or
( ( k + 3 2 ) − d ) ( ( k + 3 2 ) + d ) = 1 0 0 8 .
Then by looking at the factorings of 1 0 0 8 we can determine the possible integer values for k , and thus for m . Solutions that pop out for ( m , n ) are then ( 2 0 , 4 ) , ( 4 7 , 4 ) , ( 1 1 0 , 4 ) and ( 2 3 6 , 4 ) , among others. So if we can follow the same process for all n > 1 and k ≥ 1 and always find solutions we would be able to conclude that there are an infinite number of solutions with n > 1 . I still have to prove this, though.
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@Brian Charlesworth – If we are given n , an easier approach is that we want n 2 + m ∣ n 4 − n .
For n = 4 , this gives us 1 6 + m ∣ 2 5 2 . Then, by subtracting 16 from the valid factors of 252, the corresponding values of m are 2, 5, 12, 20, 26, 47, 68, 110, 236,
The first line follows by the standard "remainder-factor theorem" / "partial fraction" approach, where we have m + n 2 m 2 − n = m − n 2 + m + n 2 n 4 − n .
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@Calvin Lin – Now we can vary m and find the values of n
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@Kushal Bose – If m is fixed and n is allowed to vary, then I would take a different approach.
Namely, determine the solution set of ∣ x 2 + m ∣ > ∣ x − m 2 ∣ = 0 and then we know that n has to lie in the complement.
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@Calvin Lin – Then how to solve the second part of your expression ??
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Nice way of solving it.
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For n 2 + m m 2 − n to be an integer,
∣ m 2 − n ∣ m 2 − n m 2 − m − n 2 − n ⟹ m ⟹ m ≥ n 2 + m ≥ n 2 + m ≥ 0 = 2 1 ± 1 + 4 n 2 + 4 n = 2 1 ± ( 2 n + 1 ) = n + 1 for m , n > 0 and m 2 − n ≥ 0 A quadratic equation of m for m > 0
Putting m = n + 1 , then we have n 2 + m m 2 − n = n 2 + n + 1 ( n + 1 ) 2 − n = n 2 + n + 1 n 2 + 2 n + 1 − n = n 2 + n + 1 n 2 + n + 1 = 1 . Therefore, ( n + 1 , n ) is a solution for any n and there are infinitely many .