2 3 2 = 2 3 2 − 2 3 2 = ( 2 3 + 2 3 ) ( 2 3 − 2 3 ) = ( 2 3 + 2 3 ) ⋅ 0 = 2 3 = 2 3 ⋅ 2 3 2 3 ⋅ 2 3 − 2 3 ⋅ 2 3 2 3 ( 2 3 − 2 3 ) 2 3 ⋅ 0 4 6 ⇒ 1 = 2 … ① … ② … ③ … ④ … ⑤
The above equations lead us to a conclusion that 1 = 2 . Then which of these steps contains the flaw.
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Exactly ..
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if you liked the solution then do upvote it. :))
(゜-゜) (・o・) (゜o゜) ☺✌✋
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☝️=✌️ ;) :)
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@Satyabrata Dash – Haha (●´ϖ`●) ( ・ิω・ิ) ʕ•ٹ•ʔ
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@Ashish Menon – did you like the title?? . i couldnt think of any word so i kept this one
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@Satyabrata Dash – Haha definitely. I interpreted it as 1 = 2 also.
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@Ashish Menon – yep it is 1=2.
In fourth step we have cancelled
0
by
0
to
1
which is actually indeterminate. So, the answer is
4
.
☺ ☝=✌
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According to properties of real numbers if a , b , c are real numbers , then,
a b = a c → b = c
is justified only when a = 0 since to obtain b = c from previous step we have to multiply by a 1 on both the sides and also division by 0 is undefined i.e ( 0 0 → u n d e f i n e d )
Hence, the flaw is in the 4 t h step.