The function f ( x ) is defined for real constants a , b , c , and d :
f ( x ) = x 4 + a x 3 + b x 2 + c x + d .
The graph of the function is shown below.
Given that the tangent lines at ( 1 , f ( 1 ) ) and at ( 5 , f ( 5 ) ) coincide, what is the value of a + b ?
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
This method is very impressive.
Great question!
Yup, impressive; very elegant! I scribbled full a whole A4 paper and even needed two tries :/.
How do you know one and 5 are the repeated roots.
Log in to reply
It's a quartic equation so there are at most 4 roots. After subtracting the tangent line, the resulting graph is both zero and has a derivative that is zero in both 1 and 5. You need two roots (or a repeated root) for that to happen. If it wasn't a repeated root then the derivative wouldn't be zero (aka, the tangent line wouldn't be tangent).
Log in to reply
I see.I think you meant quartic equation.
Log in to reply
@Aaryan Vaishya – Yes, sorry. I edited my reply so now it says 'quartic', thanks :)
Isn'it possible that some roots are complex ?
Log in to reply
OK, got it. These roots are also extremums, so of a degree greater than than 1
Log in to reply
Not quite. More accurately, because the graph is tangential, we know that it must have the form A ( x ) × ( x − 1 ) 2 and likewise B ( x ) × ( x − 5 ) 2 . The only monic quartic that satisfies this condition is ( x − 1 ) 2 ( x − 5 ) 2 .
I integrated 4 ( x − 1 ) ( x − 3 ) ( x − 5 ) and got the answer.
Log in to reply
Is the answer come from some coefficient? or you integrate it from some x = a to x = b ? More importantly, why so?
Log in to reply
If the slope of the tangent lines is 0, then f ′ ( 1 ) = f ′ ( 5 ) = 0 and f ( 1 ) = f ( 5 ) .
I expected the graph has reflection symmetry, and its line of symmetry will be x = 3 , so I supposed f ′ ( 3 ) = 0 .
Thus I integrated ( x − 1 ) ( x − 5 ) ( x − 3 ) and got 4 x 4 − 1 2 x 3 + 4 6 x 2 − 6 0 x + C .
Because the coefficent of x 4 is 1, so I took f ( x ) = x 4 − 1 2 x 3 + 4 6 x 2 − 6 0 x + C .
(If we add g ( x ) = m x + n to f ( x ) , the tangent lines will still concide, so just as you said, c and d doesn't matter.)
Log in to reply
@X X – IMO, the biggest gap in your solution is that there is no clear reason why a line of symmetry is necessary for the conditions to hold.
While that is a true result (e.g. if follows from Chan's observation of what the function looks like), you will need to provide more justification.
Wow, this is an awesome solution!
And it generalizes very easily for a common tangent line at any two values p and q : a = − 2 ( p + q ) and b = p 2 + q 2 + 4 p q with c and d both free.
Exact solution
-54 is the correct answer prove me wrong.
Log in to reply
− 5 4 = 3 4 ■
Log in to reply
This made up my day.
This is a great question
Great solution
But why not (x-1)*(x-5)^3 ??
Log in to reply
Because it's a tangent line, those solutions only touch the tangent line, so they must have multiplicity 2.
Let the gradient of the straight line and hence that at ( 1 , f ( 1 ) ) and ( 5 , f ( 5 ) ) be m . Then
⎩ ⎪ ⎪ ⎨ ⎪ ⎪ ⎧ m = 5 − 1 f ( 5 ) − f ( 1 ) = 1 5 6 + 3 1 a + 6 b + c m = f ′ ( 1 ) = 4 + 3 a + 2 b + c m = f ′ ( 5 ) = 5 0 0 + 7 5 a + 1 0 b + c . . . ( 1 ) . . . ( 2 ) . . . ( 3 )
⟹ { ( 1 ) = ( 2 ) : 7 a + b = − 3 8 ( 2 ) = ( 3 ) : 9 a + b = − 6 2 . . . ( 4 ) . . . ( 5 )
From ( 5 ) − ( 4 ) : 2 a = − 2 4 ⟹ a = − 1 2 . From ( 2 ) : − 8 4 + b = − 3 8 ⟹ b = 4 6 . Therefore, a + b = − 1 2 + 4 6 = 3 4 .
This is how I did it too.
I also did it this way too. But I do like Chan Lye Lee's solution quite a bit more.
I calculated the first derivative and set them to be equal to each other
f ′ ( x ) = 4 x 3 + 3 a x 2 + 2 b x + c
f ′ ( 1 ) = 4 + 3 a + 2 b + c
f ′ ( 5 ) = 5 0 0 + 7 5 a + 1 0 b + c
5 0 0 + 7 5 a + 1 0 b + c = 4 + 3 a + 2 b + c
I then calculated the second derivative and set them to be equal to each other.
f ′ ′ ( x ) = 1 2 x 2 + 6 a x + 2 b
f ′ ′ ( 1 ) = 1 2 + 6 a + 2 b
f ′ ′ ( 5 ) = 3 0 0 + 3 0 a + 2 b
From here, we solve the system of equations
5
0
0
+
7
5
a
+
1
0
b
+
c
=
4
+
3
a
+
2
b
+
c
3 0 0 + 3 0 a + 2 b = 1 2 + 6 a + 2 b
We get
a
=
−
1
2
b = 4 6
a + b = 3 4 .
Would this method always work?
Note: Over all polynomials (and more generally, all functions), it is not true that if the tangent lines are the same, then the second derivatives are equal. However, when restricted to quartics, this turns out to be a happy coincidence.
The key is that, as pointed out by Chan Lye Lee, the quartic has the form
f ( x ) = A ( x − j ) 2 ( x − k ) 2 + m x + n ,
where the identical tangent lines are at ( j , f ( j ) ) and ( k , f ( k ) ) .
Then, since the second derivative is only affected by ( x − j ) 2 ( x − k ) 2 , we can conclude that with respect to the line of symmetry at x = 2 i + j , the first derivatives are negative of each other and so the second derivatives are equal to each other.
In addition, we can show this algebraically by calculating the second derivative:
f
′
′
(
x
)
=
2
(
j
2
+
4
j
k
−
6
j
x
+
k
2
−
6
j
x
+
6
x
2
)
.
From here, we obtain
f
′
′
(
j
)
=
f
′
′
(
k
)
=
2
(
j
−
k
)
2
.
This makes it seem like a random coincidence, so I prefer the symmetry argument.
dang it i equated the first derivatives i should have equated the second derivatives because they make the equations easier
good method
I think the same way as you but b always give me 30 no 46, even when I solve the system of equations using a calculator
Looks like b could be anything. It drops out of the equation. I highly doubt that this method is valid. You should be equating first derivatives like Chew-Seong did.
Log in to reply
This is a unique coincidence in the case of quartics. See my note in the solution.
Yes. I had first thought: how would equating the second derivatives give you a correct answer and how are the second derivatives a at f(5) and f(1) equal?
thanks for clarifying my doubts, Mr. Lin
f ( x ) = x 4 + a x 3 + b x 2 + c x + d ⟹ f ′ ( x ) = 4 x 3 + 3 a x 2 + 2 b x + c
f ′ ( 5 ) = 5 0 0 + 7 5 a + 1 0 b + c and f ′ ( 1 ) = 4 + 3 a + 2 b + c and using the coordinates of the given points the slope
m = 4 6 2 4 + 1 2 4 a + 2 4 b + 4 c
f ′ ( 5 ) = m = f ′ ( 1 ) ⟹ 2 0 0 0 + 3 0 0 a + 4 0 b = 6 2 4 + 1 2 4 a + 2 4 b and 1 6 + 1 2 a + 8 b = 6 2 4 + 1 2 4 a + 2 4 b
⟹
1 1 a + b = − 8 6
− 7 a − b = 3 8
⟹ a = − 1 2 and b = 4 6 ⟹ a + b = 3 4 .
We know that f'(1) = f'(5). Solving this equation you obtain that 9a+b = -62. We know from the graph attached to the task that f(1) and f(5) lay on the same line. Thanks to it we can calculate f(5) as f(1)+4 f'(1). If you compare f(5) with f(1)+4 f'(1) you will obtain another relationship between a and b - 7a+b = -38. Now you have two equations from which you can easily calculate that a = -12 and b = 46, so a+b = 34.
If we can find ONE function with this property, we can get a+b from that. The simplest is
f ( 1 ) = f ( 5 ) = 0 and
f ′ ( 1 ) = f ′ ( 5 ) = 0
If a polynomial has a factor (x-n)^2, then its value and slope are 0 at x=n. Thus,
f ( x ) = ( x − 1 ) 2 ∗ ( x − 5 ) 2
works here. It expands to
f ( x ) = x 4 − 1 2 x 3 + 4 6 x 2 − 6 0 x + 2 5
where a+b = 34
We can then generalize to say that ANY polynomial with a=-12, b=46 has this property, and no others do.
f ( x ) + d would just translate f(x) upwards, preserving the tangent line. Thus d can have any value
f ( x ) + c x would change the tangent line's slope, but preserve the line. Thus c can have any value
f ( x ) + b ′ x 2 , f ( x ) + a ′ x 3 (where a' and b' are different from a and b) would change the function's slope unevenly at every point, so that f'(1) would not equal f'(5):
f ′ ( 1 ) = a ′ + b ′
f ′ ( 5 ) = 2 5 a ′ + 5 b ′
There is no combination of a' and b' that would make these values of f'(x) equal except a'=b'=0. a and b MUST be exactly -12 and 46 respectively.
It's easy to see that the dotted line corresponds to g ( x ) = x and the problem is telling us that f and g are tangent at x = 1 , 5 (i.e. each of these values should be a double root of the difference of the polynomials). So we have that f − g is a monic polynomial (leading coefficient is 1) that has a double root at 1 and at 5. Therefore:
f ( x ) − g ( x ) = 1 × ( x − 1 ) 2 ( x − 5 ) 2 = x 4 − 1 2 x 3 + 4 6 x 2 − 5 9 x + 2 5
And since g ( x ) = x we see that a = − 1 2 , b = 4 6 . Therefore a + b = 3 4
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
Let the common tangent be y = m x + n . As it intersects with y = f ( x ) , we consider the equation f ( x ) = m x + n , or equivalently x 4 + a x 3 + b x 2 + ( c − m ) x + ( d − n ) = 0
From the conditions, we know that x = 1 and x = 5 are the repeated roots, so the above equation can be written as ( x − 1 ) 2 ( x − 5 ) 2 = 0 . Expand it and we will obtain x 4 − 1 2 x 3 + 4 6 x 2 − 6 0 x + 2 5 = 0 .
Compare the coefficients of x 3 and x 2 , we have a = − 1 2 and b = 4 6 . Then a + b = 3 4 .
Note that the values of c and d may be arbitrary.