Consider the following two point sets A = { ( a , b , c ) ∣ a , b , c ∈ Z with the same parity } , B = { ( α + β + γ , α − β + γ , α + β − γ ) ∣ α , β , γ ∈ Z } . Which one of the following statements is correct?
Bonus: Generalise this for n -tuple ( n ≥ 2 ).
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I will show equality by showing inclusion in both directions. I show any arbitrary element of B is also in A , and vice versa.
An arbitrary element of B can be expressed in the form above, with all three elements of the ordered triple expressed as linear sums of three arbitrary integers, α , β , and γ .
The B → A inclusion is clear enough:
a = α + β + γ ,
b = α − β + γ ,
c = α + β − γ
Do we know that all three of these are of the same parity? Yes, because ( β + γ ) , ( β − γ ) , and ( − β + γ ) are all of the same parity. Adding α to those three numbers will result in three sums all of the same parity. Thus B ⊂ A .
To show A ⊂ B , we given a triple ( a , b , c ) ∈ A , we need corresponding values of α , β , and γ . The A → B mapping is also simple, though it isn't explicitly spelled out.
α = 2 b + c
β = 2 a − b
γ = 2 a − c
Since a , b , and c are all of the same parity, ( b + c ) , ( a − b ) and ( a − c ) are all even numbers, and thus α , β and γ are all integers. Thus this mapping shows ( a , b , c ) ∈ B .
So A ⊂ B and B ⊂ A , i.e., A = B .
For any natural α , β , γ ; α + β + γ , α − β + γ , α + β − γ are of the same parity. So A = B
That's not quite enough - you've only shown that B ⊂ A . (For example, by the same logic you could argue that the set C of triples of the form ( 2 α , 2 β , 2 γ ) - the elements of whose triples all have the same parity - was equal to A ; but clearly this isn't the case.)
To show the sets are actually the same, you need to prove that for any ( a , b , c ) ∈ A , we can find ( α , β , γ ) ∈ Z such that α + β + γ = a , α − β + γ = b and α + β − γ = c .
But this is fairly easy; the quickest way is probably just to note that the matrix of coefficients ⎝ ⎛ 1 1 1 1 − 1 1 1 1 − 1 ⎠ ⎞
is invertible. So B ⊂ A and A ⊂ B , and hence A = B .
I meant to say that if α , β , γ be all even or any two of them are odd and the third be even, then all the elements of the set B will be points with even coordinates while if all of them be odd or any two of them be even and the third be odd, then all the elements of B will have points with odd coordinates. Hence for all values of α , β , γ , the set B will have points all of which are there in set A and vice versa. Is this logic erroneous?
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It's fine up until "and vice versa". You've only proved that all the elements of B are also elements of A (ie, the parity works out). But you can't conclude from that alone that every triple in A is also in B .
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Please give an example to make things clear, so that I can rectify myself.
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@A Former Brilliant Member – Let's define a set C = { ( 2 x , 2 y , 2 z ) ∣ x , y , z ∈ Z } .
To prove that C ⊂ A , it's enough to observe that every element of C satisfies the conditions to be in set A . Since every element of C is a triple of even integers (which by definition have the same parity), they do indeed all belong to A . So C ⊂ A .
This is the same logic as you've used - but we can't say "and vice versa": there are elements of A that do not belong to C ; for example, the element ( 1 , 1 , 1 ) is in A but not in C . So it is not true that A ⊂ C , and we can't conclude that A = C .
I hope that makes sense!
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Clearly B ⊆ A because the coordinates of elements of B all have the same parity. To show that A ⊆ B , consider ( a , b , c ) ∈ A and let α β γ = 2 b + c = 2 a − b = 2 a − c Then α , β , γ are all integers because b + c , a − b , a − c are all even, and it is easy to check that ( a , b , c ) = ( α + β + γ , α − β + γ , α + β − γ ) . So A = B .