Continuing the improper integrals!

Calculus Level 5

Evaluate upto two decimal places

0 sin ( x ) sin ( x 2 ) d x \large{\int^{\infty}_0\sin(x)\sin(x^2)dx} If it comes out to be divergent, answer 2016.2016 2016.2016 .

Note: If your answer is 12.156 12.156 , then type 12.15 12.15 .


The answer is 0.49.

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2 solutions

Mark Hennings
Jan 8, 2016

0 X sin ( x 2 ) sin x d x = 1 2 0 X [ cos ( x 2 x ) cos ( x 2 + x ) ] d x = 1 2 0 X [ cos ( ( x 1 2 ) 2 1 4 ) cos ( ( x + 1 2 ) 2 1 4 ) ] d x = 1 2 ( 1 2 X 1 2 cos ( x 2 1 4 ) d x 1 2 X + 1 2 cos ( x 2 1 4 ) d x ) = 1 2 ( 1 2 1 2 cos ( x 2 1 4 ) d x X 1 2 X + 1 2 cos ( x 2 1 4 ) d x ) \begin{array}{rcl} \displaystyle \int_0^X \sin(x^2)\sin x\,dx & = &\displaystyle \tfrac12\int_0^X \big[\cos(x^2-x) - \cos(x^2+x)\big]\,dx \\ & = &\displaystyle \tfrac12\int_0^X \big[\cos\big((x-\tfrac12)^2 - \tfrac14\big) - \cos\big((x+\tfrac12)^2 - \tfrac14\big)\big]\,dx \\ & = & \displaystyle \tfrac12\left(\int_{-\frac12}^{X-\frac12} \cos(x^2-\tfrac14)\,dx - \int_{\frac12}^{X+\frac12} \cos(x^2-\frac14)\,dx\right) \\ & = & \displaystyle \tfrac12\left( \int_{-\frac12}^{\frac12} \cos(x^2-\tfrac14)\,dx - \int_{X-\frac12}^{X+\frac12} \cos(x^2 - \tfrac14)\,dx\right) \end{array} Letting X X \to \infty , we deduce that 0 sin ( x 2 ) sin x d x = 1 2 1 2 1 2 cos ( x 2 1 4 ) d x = cos 1 4 0 1 2 cos ( x 2 ) d x + sin 1 4 0 1 2 sin ( x 2 ) d x = π 2 [ cos 1 4 C ( 1 2 π ) + sin 1 4 S ( 1 2 π ) ] \begin{array}{rcl} \displaystyle \int_0^\infty \sin(x^2) \sin x\,dx & = &\displaystyle \tfrac12\int_{-\frac12}^{\frac12} \cos(x^2-\tfrac14)\,dx \\ & = &\displaystyle \cos\tfrac14 \int_0^{\frac12} \cos (x^2)\,dx + \sin\tfrac14\int_0^{\frac12} \sin(x^2)\,dx \\ & = &\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{\pi}{2}}\left[ \cos\tfrac14 C\big(\tfrac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\big) + \sin\tfrac14S\big(\tfrac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\big) \right] \end{array} where C C and S S are the Fresnel integrals. At this point, I reached for my copy of Mathematica to get 0.4917... 0.4917... .

Yeah even I did the same. I just used a calculator to get the result from last step. Isn't there any other method? Such as transforms or expansions?

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 5 months ago

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You can only simplify up to Fresnel Integrals, I doubt there's a simpler solution than this one. Plus, even if there is one, Mr (professor?) Mark Hennings would have known by now.

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 5 months ago

This is not an appropriate solution, but I show you how I solve this using some tool.

First we divide into two parts, namely 0 1 sin ( x ) sin ( x 2 ) d x + 1 sin ( x ) sin ( x 2 ) d x . \int_{0}^{1} \sin(x)\sin(x^2) \, dx \, + \, \int_{1}^{\infty} \sin(x)\sin(x^2) \, dx. For the right one, we change x x to be 1 x \frac{1}{x} , and we finally express it as 0 1 sin ( x ) sin ( x 2 ) d x + 0 1 1 x 2 sin ( 1 x ) sin ( 1 x 2 ) d x . \int_{0}^{1} \sin(x)\sin(x^2) \, dx \, + \, \int_{0}^{1} \frac{1}{x^2}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\sin\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right) \, dx. Therefore, what we need to find is 0 1 sin ( x ) sin ( x 2 ) + 1 x 2 sin ( 1 x ) sin ( 1 x 2 ) d x . \int_{0}^{1} \sin(x)\sin(x^2) + \frac{1}{x^2}\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\sin\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right) \, dx. I use Mathematica to numerically compute this integral. Because It is more precise when we use a fixed interval, here it is ( 0 , 1 ) (0,1) . The integral equals 0.492 approximately, so the answer is 0.49 \boxed{0.49} .

Some may wonder if we can calculate it using numerical methods. But take note that the original integral is over an infinite range, which is not applicable, of course. Even the form I derived, it is not bounded as x 0 + x \to 0^+ , so I cannot evaluate by standard methods like composite integration rules, etc.

How can you change from x to 1/x? And where did the integral sign go after that?

Aditya Agarwal - 5 years, 5 months ago

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If I take y = 1 x y=\frac{1}{x} in the latter integral, we get y = 1 y = 0 sin ( 1 y ) sin ( 1 y 2 ) ( 1 y 2 ) d y . \int_{y=1}^{y=0} \sin\left(\frac{1}{y}\right) \sin\left(\frac{1}{y^2}\right) \cdot \left(-\frac{1}{y^2}\right) \, dy. Which equals 0 1 sin ( 1 y ) sin ( 1 y 2 ) ( 1 y 2 ) d y . \int_{0}^{1} \sin\left(\frac{1}{y}\right) \sin\left(\frac{1}{y^2}\right) \cdot \left(\frac{1}{y^2}\right) \, dy. But it is just a dummy variable, so we may change it back to x x . Then we combined two integrals together. We can do this because the intervals are the same, ( 0 , 1 ) (0,1) .

If you're not sure about adding up two integrals, you may calculate them separately. Both converge, that's why I can integrate them altogether.

Perathorn Pooksombat - 5 years, 5 months ago

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minus sign? What is the derivative of 1/x?

Aditya Agarwal - 5 years, 5 months ago

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@Aditya Agarwal The boundary is from y = 1 y=1 to y = 0 y=0 . If we swap them, we need to multiply by 1 -1 , that's why a minus sign disappears.

Perathorn Pooksombat - 5 years, 5 months ago

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@Perathorn Pooksombat Okay, sorry, I didn't see that. But how does it reduce our effort?

Aditya Agarwal - 5 years, 5 months ago

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@Aditya Agarwal I calculate this by Mathematica, and it requires the boundary. If I use the original one, I must use a huge interval like ( 0 , 2000 ) (0,2000) or ( 0 , 5000 ) (0,5000) . This is not so accurate, by the way. While the derived one is more precise, because the interval is fixed.

However, we need only two decimal places. After some trials, I see that it is enough to calculate the original one over the interval ( 0 , 5000 ) (0,5000) . This gives 0.49 0.49 as well.

Perathorn Pooksombat - 5 years, 5 months ago

Everyone seems to have used calculator in one way or other. @Mark Hennings what was your method?

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 5 months ago

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I have posted my solution.

Mark Hennings - 5 years, 5 months ago

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