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Algebra Level 1

If the function f f has the property f ( f ( x ) ) = 1 x , f(f(x))=1-x, find the value of 2 f ( 1 2 ) 2f(\frac{1}{2})


The answer is 1.

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31 solutions

Sanjeet Raria
Nov 2, 2014

f ( f ( x ) ) = 1 x f(f(x))=1-x Replacing x x by f ( x ) f(x) , we get f ( f ( f ( x ) ) ) = 1 f ( x ) f(f(f(x)))=1-f(x) f ( 1 x ) = 1 f ( x ) \Rightarrow f(1-x)=1-f(x) putting x = 1 2 x=\frac{1}{2} , we get 2 f ( 1 2 ) = 1 2f(\frac{1}{2})=\boxed 1

So the condition of continuous is not required?

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years, 7 months ago

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I doubt that. But this question is related to a more basic question : if f ( f ( x ) ) = f(f(x))= a continuous function of x x for all reals. Are there any discontinuous solutions to this family of functional equation??

Sanjeet Raria - 6 years, 7 months ago

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There are (uncountably) infinitely many discontinuous solutions to f ( f ( x ) ) = x f( f(x) ) = x .

For example, take a , b R a, b \in \mathbb{R} and

f ( x ) = { b x = a a x = b x otherwise f(x) = \begin{cases} b & x = a \\ a & x = b \\ x & \text{ otherwise } \\ \end{cases}

You can similarly manipulate this idea for the case of f ( f ( x ) ) = 1 x f( f(x)) = 1-x . Give it a try!

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years, 7 months ago

why we have to replace x with f?

sonia shabbir - 6 years, 7 months ago

We need that information, otherwise we couldn't know if the function works for x = 1/2

artur zanon - 6 years, 7 months ago

Why would you need continuity? You are simply calculating the value of the function at a point. Existence, on the other hand, is not so trivial.

Roberto Vilarrubi - 6 years, 7 months ago

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To clarify, it was previously stated that the function was continuous. As indicated by my comment, that is not a required assumption.

As such, I have removed the condition, so that the problem has a simpler statement b

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years, 7 months ago

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@Calvin Lin f^-1(f(1/2) = 1/2 and f^-1(f(1/2)) = f^-1(1/2) = f(1/2). Then, f(1/2) = 1/2 ==> 2f(1/2) = 1

Adriano Martins Péres - 6 years, 7 months ago

@Calvin Lin Oops sorry, I just read the last version of the problem. I didn't know that a previous version included continuity, which doesn't seem to be possible.

Roberto Vilarrubi - 6 years, 7 months ago

this kinda upvoting to a wrong idea is ruining people's brain, plz remove of edit this problem

Sabet Chowdhury - 6 years, 7 months ago

Making a half century of upvotes

U Z - 6 years, 7 months ago

you can't replace x by f(x) because if f(x)=x, f(f(x))=f(x)=x is not equal to 1-x, but you're given that f(f(x))=1-x. if you were given that f(x)=1-x, then the 2f(1/2) would definitely be 1. otherwise 2f(f(1/2))=1. Thanks

Sabet Chowdhury - 6 years, 7 months ago

f ( f ( x ) ) = 1 x f(f(x))=1-x f ( f ( 1 2 ) ) = 1 1 2 = 1 2 f(f(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } ))=1-\frac { 1 }{ 2 } =\frac { 1 }{ 2 }

f ( 1 2 ) = f ( f ( f ( 1 2 ) ) ) = 1 f ( 1 2 ) f(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } )=f(f(f(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } )))=1-f(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } ) f ( 1 2 ) = 1 f ( 1 2 ) 2 f ( 1 2 ) = 1 f(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } )=1-f(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } )\\ 2f(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } )=1

step 3 not clear

Medhat Abdelaziz - 6 years, 7 months ago

Exactly as I went solving this.

Harshavardhan Kidiyoor - 6 years, 7 months ago
Kanij Sharme
Nov 5, 2014

here x=1/2, so that 2f(1/2)=2 (1-1/2)=2 (2-1/2)=2*1/2=1

Jonathan Hoseana
Nov 4, 2014

Since it seems that this will hold for any function f f , a strategy we can do is to pick any function satisfying the given relation. But a particular formula of a function f f satisfying the relation is not immediately apparent. Instead, let's say f f is any function which has an inverse. If f ( x ) = 1 / 2 f(x) = 1/2 then x = f 1 ( 1 / 2 ) x = f^{-1}(1/2) , so f ( 1 / 2 ) = 1 f 1 ( 1 / 2 ) f(1/2) = 1 - f^{-1}(1/2) . On the other hand, taking f 1 f^{-1} on both sides of the given equation, we get f ( x ) = f 1 ( 1 x ) f(x) = f^{-1}(1-x) . Plug in x = 1 / 2 x=1/2 , we have f ( 1 / 2 ) = f 1 ( 1 / 2 ) f(1/2) = f^{-1} (1/2) . Since f ( 1 / 2 ) = 1 f 1 ( 1 / 2 ) f(1/2) = 1 - f^{-1}(1/2) and f ( 1 / 2 ) = f 1 ( 1 / 2 ) f(1/2) = f^{-1} (1/2) , then f ( 1 / 2 ) = 1 / 2 f(1/2)=1/2 , so 2 f ( 1 / 2 ) = 1 2f(1/2)=1 .

Even if there exists a function which has an inverse that is a function, you do not know for certain there f 1 ( 1 2 ) f^{-1} (\frac{1}{2} ) exists, IE that there is a value y y such that f ( y ) = 1 2 f(y ) = \frac{1}{2} .

With functional equations like this, you have to be careful in justifying the validity of the steps that you too.

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years, 7 months ago

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I understand that the functional relation holds for all x. That implies that the function f is bijective.

Roberto Vilarrubi - 6 years, 7 months ago

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Right. I am pointing out that several steps are missing in this solution, which is why it is not completely correct as yet.

Like you mentioned, we need to show that f f is bijective.
Surjection: We see that f ( f ( 1 y ) ) = 1 ( 1 y ) = y f( f ( 1 - y) ) = 1 - (1- y) = y , hence f f is surjective.
Injection: If f ( x ) = f ( y ) f(x) = f(y) , then f ( f ( x ) ) = f ( f ( y ) ) 1 x = 1 y x = y f( f(x)) = f(f(y)) \Rightarrow 1-x = 1-y \Rightarrow x=y . Hence, f f is injective.

(As a possible interpretation of your comment) Note that not all functional relations which hold for all x x need to be bijective functions. . For example, the functional equation f ( x ) + f ( x ) = 1 f(x) + f( - x) = 1 is satisfied by f ( x ) = 1 2 f(x) = \frac{1}{2} for all x x , and is neither surjective nor injective.

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years, 6 months ago
Roman Frago
Apr 18, 2015

Let f ( x ) = a x + b f(x)=ax+b

f ( f ( x ) ) = a ( a x + b ) + b f(f(x))=a(ax+b)+b

f ( f ( x ) ) = a 2 x + b ( a + 1 ) = 1 x f(f(x))=a^2x+b(a+1)=1-x

a = i a=i and b = 1 i + 1 b=\frac {1}{i+1}

f ( x ) = i x + 1 i + 1 f(x)=ix+\frac {1}{i+1}

2 f ( 1 2 ) = 2 ( i × 1 2 + 1 i + 1 ) 2f(\frac {1}{2})=2(i\times \frac {1}{2}+\frac {1}{i+1})

2 f ( 1 2 ) = ( i + 2 i + 1 ) 2f(\frac {1}{2})=(i+\frac {2}{i+1})

2 f ( 1 2 ) = i ( i + 1 ) + 2 i + 1 2f(\frac {1}{2})=\frac {i(i+1)+2}{i+1}

2 f ( 1 2 ) = i + 1 i + 1 = 1 2f(\frac {1}{2})=\frac {i+1}{i+1}=\boxed{1}

Lưu Phúc
Nov 7, 2014

f ( f ( 1 2 ) ) = 1 1 2 = 1 2 f(f(\frac{1}{2})) = 1 - \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2} f ( f ( x ) ) = 1 x f ( f ( f ( x ) ) ) = 1 f ( x ) f ( x ) = 1 f ( f ( f ( x ) ) ) f(f(x)) = 1 - x \Rightarrow f(f(f(x))) = 1 - f(x) \iff f(x) = 1 - f(f(f(x))) f ( 1 2 ) = 1 f ( f ( f ( 1 2 ) ) ) = 1 f ( 1 2 ) 2 f ( 1 2 ) = 1 f(\frac{1}{2}) = 1 - f(f(f(\frac{1}{2}))) = 1 - f(\frac{1}{2}) \iff 2 f(\frac{1}{2}) = 1

Howard Yeung
Nov 5, 2014

f(f(x)) = 1 - x, so f(f(f(x))) = x. With f(f(1/2)) = 1 - 1/2, we have f(1/2) = f(f(f(1/2))) = 1/2. Done.

This is correct way!!!!

Abhishek Kumar - 6 years, 7 months ago

Rather weird (and wrong) solution.

If we let f ( x ) = x f(x) = x for some x x , we get the equation

x = 1 x x = 1-x

x = 1 2 \displaystyle x = \frac{1}{2}

Therefore, f ( x ) = x f(x) = x if x = 1 2 \displaystyle x = \frac{1}{2}

2 f ( 1 2 ) = 2 × 1 2 = 1 \therefore \displaystyle 2f(\frac{1}{2}) = 2 \times \frac{1}{2} = \boxed{1}

I'm afraid that your argument (as presented) is circular.

You do not know that we must have a value which satisfies f ( x ) = x f(x) = x . If we do, then the only possible value where this occurs is x = 1 2 x = \frac{1}{2} .

The correct conclusion is "Therefore, if f ( x ) = x f(x) = x for some x x , then this only occurs when x = 1 2 x = \frac{1}{2} ." This statement is not equivalent to saying "When x = 1 2 x = \frac{1}{2} , f ( x ) = x f(x) = x .

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years, 7 months ago
Vraj Mehta
Dec 5, 2014

Just put x=1/2 in the first equation, ans automatically comes to be 1.

Then you are assuming that f ( x ) = f ( f ( x ) ) f(x)=f(f(x)) . The answer may have been the same but not the right solution.

Roman Frago - 6 years, 1 month ago
Curtis Clement
Nov 21, 2014

Let f(f(x))=1/2=1-x, so x=1/2. This gives f(1/2)=1/2. Hence, 2f(1/2)=1

Tally Vally
Nov 20, 2014

This problem was sooooooo easy!!!!! I really did like this problem though so thank you!!!!!!! :-)

Jacob Wypiszinski
Nov 11, 2014

If you divide the left and right side of the equation, you get the function half, and the actual quantity half. f(f(x)) -- the function half 1-x -- the quantity Functions that are written using f(x) are just over-formalized ways of indicating what the independent variable of the function is. The overall point is that x needs to be given a value, and its value will affect the value of the quantity. For example, x=1, 1-x, 1-1=0 The function side of the equation would be written like this f(f(1)) But regarding this part just confuses the problem.

So, we are told to find the value at 2f(1/2) Rewriting the original equation, we get 2f(1/2) = 2(1- 1/2) =1

Biswajit Karmakar
Nov 11, 2014

take f(f(x))=f(1/2) then,f(1/2)=1-1/2=1/2 now ,multiply,2 and 1/2 it results 1.

Carlo-Kun Pialan
Nov 9, 2014

from f(f(x)) = 1 - x, let x = f(x). Then, f(x) = 1 - f(x). Separating f(x) we get 2f(x) = 1. If x = 1/2 2f(1/2) = 1.

f(f(x)) = 1-x

Find 2f(1/2)

1) From observation, f(1/2) which is equivalent to f(x). Since f(x)=f(1/2) hence x=1/2

2) Substitute x = 1/2 then the original function would be f(1/2) = 1-1/2

3) Get the required: 2f(1/2) = 2(1-1/2) = 1

Therefore the answer is 1

since fof(x)=x, we get x=1/2 therofore fof(x)=1

Shaun Pollock
Nov 7, 2014

f(f(x)=1-x put x=1/2 f(1/2)=1/2 2f(1/2)=2(1/2)=1

William Wang
Nov 6, 2014

All you had to do was substitute x for 1/2 and multiply by 2

Rajesh Bansal
Nov 6, 2014

Since f(x) = 1-x thus f(1/2) = 1-1/2=1/2 2f(1/2)= 2x1/2 = 1

Martin Meyers
Nov 6, 2014

2f(1/2)=2(1-1/2)=1

Ryan Hewett
Nov 6, 2014

f(f(x)) = f^2(x) f^2(x) = 1 - x than by dividing by x on both sides shows that f^2 = 1 Since the square root of 1 is 1 and the square root of f^2 is f than f = 1 Than 2f(1/2) is 2(1)(1/2) = 1

f(f(x))=f(1-x)
f(1-x)=1-(1-x)=x
2(f(1/2))=2*1/2
=1

Sujeet Kumar
Nov 6, 2014

when x=1/2 then f(1/2)=1/2 now,f(x=1/2)=1/2 & f=2 so after multiplying f*f(1/2)=1

Girma Gurmu
Nov 6, 2014

Write a solution. First solve for x=1/2 f(f(1/2))=1-1/2=1/2 , then multiply by 2, 1/2x2=1

f(1)=2(1-1/2) =2(1/2) =1

Loren Tan
Nov 6, 2014

f(f(x))=1-x fsquaredx=1-x ----- ---- x x fsquared=1 f=1squared f=1 value of 2f(½) =2x1(½) =2(½) =1

Buet Tutor
Nov 5, 2014

Let f(x) =ax+b ; It is obvious the the function is liner one. Then f(f(x)) = a(ax+b)+b = a^2 x+ab+b Now, a^2 x+ab+b = 1-x ; Making an identity Comparing the co-efficient of x & constant term; a^2 = -1 & ab + b = 1 Solving these equation, a= i & b = (1 - i)/2 ; Taking only positive solution So, f(x) = ix +(1-i)/2 2f(1/2) =2[ i(1/2) + (1-i)/2] = i +(1-i) =

Tamil Selvan K
Nov 5, 2014

If we are giving the vale x=1/2 , we get f( f(1/2))=1/2 from first equation, and the second equation becomes 2 f(1/2)=2(1-1/2)=2(1/2)=1. Finally answer is 1.

Raj Patel
Nov 5, 2014

Assume f(x)=y

So f(y)=1-x

Calculate invert function

So assume f(y)=z

z=1-x

x=1-z

So f(x)=1-x

2f(1/2)=1

This is right method?

This equation is a nestid loop. Therefore we now that f(f(x))= f(x) so 2(1- (1/2)) = 1

in f(x), x is the variable...whereas in f(f(x)), f(x) is the variable...wat u said is in correct...as an ex. if f(x)=1-x then f(f(x)) could also be f(x)*f(x)-23f(x)!!! hence f(f(x)) is not equal to f(x)!!!!

Praveenkumar Rajendran - 6 years, 7 months ago
Wenjie Jiang
Nov 4, 2014

f(f(x)=1-x f(x)=x f(1/2)=1/2 2*1/2=1

Consider f(f(x))=1/2=1-x, so x=1/2. This gives f(1/2)=1/2. Hence, 2f(1/2)=1 get it!!!!!!!!!!!

Subir Roy - 6 years, 6 months ago

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