It's an even function right?

Calculus Level 4

π 2 π 2 [ cos ( x ) ( x 2 + ln ( π x π + x ) ) ] d x \large \int_{-\frac \pi 2}^{\frac \pi 2} \left [ \cos(x) \left(x^2 + \ln \left( \frac{\pi-x}{\pi+x} \right)\right) \right ] \, dx

If the integral above equals to π A B A \frac{\pi^A - B}{A} for integers A , B A,B , what is the value of A + B A+B ?


The answer is 10.

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1 solution

Isaac Buckley
Jul 11, 2015

Let I = π 2 π 2 [ cos ( x ) ( x 2 + ln ( π x π + x ) ) ] d x I= \large \int_{-\frac \pi 2}^{\frac \pi 2} \left [ \cos(x) \left(x^2 + \ln \left( \frac{\pi-x}{\pi+x} \right)\right) \right ] \, dx

By letting u = x u=-x the integral becomes

I = π 2 π 2 [ cos ( u ) ( u 2 + ln ( π + u π u ) ) ] d u I= \large \int_{-\frac \pi 2}^{\frac \pi 2} \left [ \cos(u) \left(u^2 + \ln \left( \frac{\pi+u}{\pi-u} \right)\right) \right ] \, du

If we add these together we find

2 I = π 2 π 2 [ cos ( x ) ( 2 x 2 + ln ( π x π + x ) + ln ( π + x π x ) ) ] d x 2I= \large \int_{-\frac \pi 2}^{\frac \pi 2} \left [ \cos(x) \left(2x^2 + \ln \left( \frac{\pi-x}{\pi+x} \right)+ \ln \left( \frac{\pi+x}{\pi-x} \right)\right) \right ] \, dx

Notice how the logs cancel.

I = π 2 π 2 x 2 cos ( x ) d x \implies I= \large \int_{-\frac \pi 2}^{\frac \pi 2}x^2\cos(x)\, dx

This can be integrated by parts and is evaluated to be I = π 2 8 2 I=\frac{π^2-8}{2}

Could you explain the third step for me? PLEASE.....

Ashley Shamidha - 5 years, 11 months ago

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Sure Ashley, the integration by parts bit?

Isaac Buckley - 5 years, 11 months ago

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No, the addition of two equations. There you have replaced "u" with "x". I don't understand that

Ashley Shamidha - 5 years, 11 months ago

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@Ashley Shamidha Ahh, sure :)

We have ( 1 ) I = π 2 π 2 [ cos ( x ) ( x 2 + ln ( π x π + x ) ) ] d x (1)\,\, I= \large \int_{-\frac \pi 2}^{\frac \pi 2} \left [ \cos(x) \left(x^2 + \ln \left( \frac{\pi-x}{\pi+x} \right)\right) \right ] \, dx And by making the u = x u=-x sub we found out ( 2 ) I = π 2 π 2 [ cos ( u ) ( u 2 + ln ( π + u π u ) ) ] d u (2)\,\, I= \large \int_{-\frac \pi 2}^{\frac \pi 2} \left [ \cos(u) \left(u^2 + \ln \left( \frac{\pi+u}{\pi-u} \right)\right) \right ] \, du But here, u is just a dummy variable. We can call it whatever we want. We can rewrite the equation (2) as ( 2 ) I = π 2 π 2 [ cos ( x ) ( x 2 + ln ( π + x π x ) ) ] d x (2)\,\, I= \large \int_{-\frac \pi 2}^{\frac \pi 2} \left [ \cos(x) \left(x^2 + \ln \left( \frac{\pi+x}{\pi-x} \right)\right) \right ] \, dx

Then adding (1) and (2) together we get

2 I = π 2 π 2 [ cos ( x ) ( x 2 + ln ( π x π + x ) ) ] d x + π 2 π 2 [ cos ( x ) ( x 2 + ln ( π + x π x ) ) ] d x 2I=\large \int_{-\frac \pi 2}^{\frac \pi 2} \left [ \cos(x) \left(x^2 + \ln \left( \frac{\pi-x}{\pi+x} \right)\right) \right ] \, dx\\+ \large \int_{-\frac \pi 2}^{\frac \pi 2} \left [ \cos(x) \left(x^2 + \ln \left( \frac{\pi+x}{\pi-x} \right)\right) \right ] \, dx 2 I = π 2 π 2 [ cos ( x ) ( 2 x 2 + ln ( π x π + x ) + ln ( π + x π x ) ) ] d x 2I= \large \int_{-\frac \pi 2}^{\frac \pi 2} \left [ \cos(x) \left(2x^2 + \ln \left( \frac{\pi-x}{\pi+x} \right)+ \ln \left( \frac{\pi+x}{\pi-x} \right)\right) \right ] \, dx

The logs cancel out because ln ( x ) + ln ( 1 x ) = ln ( x ) + ln ( x 1 ) = ln ( x ) ln ( x ) = 0 \ln(x)+\ln(\frac{1}{x})=\ln(x)+\ln(x^{-1})=\ln(x)-\ln(x)=0

Isaac Buckley - 5 years, 11 months ago

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@Isaac Buckley Is it correct to replace (-x) with (x) ?

Ashley Shamidha - 5 years, 11 months ago

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@Ashley Shamidha No. It then stops becoming a variable.

If x = x x=-x then you're saying 2 x = 0 x = 0 2x=0\implies x=0

Isaac Buckley - 5 years, 11 months ago

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@Isaac Buckley then how can you replace "u=-x" with x?

Ashley Shamidha - 5 years, 11 months ago

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@Ashley Shamidha I'm really sorry if I'm bugging you, but I'm weak at this topic.

Ashley Shamidha - 5 years, 11 months ago

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@Ashley Shamidha You're not bugging me at all. You show a passion for knowledge and you're making me think :) I love to think!

I think the problem is because integration must become over a variable. by letting u = x u=-x you're changing the variable so the integral is simplified and easily manipulated. If you let x = x x=-x you're not changing variables. You've just created an equation for x x . It ceases to be a variable when you do that.

Isaac Buckley - 5 years, 11 months ago

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@Isaac Buckley Also I hope you can see why you are allowed to change the dummy variable. You're not making a sub, but rather just a relabelling.

f ( x ) d x = f ( u ) d u \int f(x)\,dx=\int f(u)\,du

Isaac Buckley - 5 years, 11 months ago

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@Isaac Buckley Somewhat I understood. Thanks for spending your time.

Ashley Shamidha - 5 years, 11 months ago

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@Ashley Shamidha No problem :) im sure someone who knows a lot more than I do can answer your question better if they see this.

Isaac Buckley - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Isaac Buckley I have to read more topics on integration.

Ashley Shamidha - 5 years, 11 months ago

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