Definitely Definite

Calculus Level 5

0 10 π e cos θ cos ( sin θ ) d θ \large \int_0^{10\pi} e^{\cos \theta} \cos(\sin\theta) \, d\theta

Find the value of the integral above. Give your answer to 3 decimal places.


The answer is 31.416.

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1 solution

Karthik Sharma
Sep 6, 2015

As e i ( s i n θ ) = c o s ( s i n θ ) + i s i n ( s i n θ ) { e }^{ i(sin\theta ) }=cos(sin\theta )+isin(sin\theta ) ,

We can say-

0 10 π e c o s θ c o s ( s i n θ ) d θ \int _{ 0 }^{ 10\pi }{ { e }^{ cos\theta } } cos(sin\theta )d\theta = = real part of 0 10 π e c o s θ ( c o s ( s i n θ ) + i s i n ( s i n θ ) ) d θ \int _{ 0 }^{ 10\pi }{ { e }^{ cos\theta } } (cos(sin\theta ) + isin(sin\theta)) d\theta

= = real part of 0 10 π e c o s θ ( e i s i n θ ) d θ \int _{ 0 }^{ 10\pi }{ { e }^{ cos\theta } } ({ e }^{isin\theta)} d\theta

= = real part of 0 10 π e c o s θ + i s i n θ d θ \int _{ 0 }^{ 10\pi }{ { e }^{ cos\theta + isin\theta } } d\theta

= = real part of 0 10 π e e i θ d θ \int _{ 0 }^{ 10\pi }{\Large{ e }^{ { e }^{ i\theta }} } d\theta

= = real part of 0 10 π [ 1 + e i θ + e 2 i θ 2 ! + e 3 i θ 3 ! + . . . . ] d θ \int _{ 0 }^{ 10\pi }{\Large\left[ 1+{ e }^{ i\theta }+\frac { { e }^{ 2i\theta } }{ 2! } +\frac { { e }^{ 3i\theta } }{ 3! } +\quad .... \right] } d\theta

= = real part of 0 10 π [ 1 + ( c o s θ + i s i n θ ) + ( c o s 2 θ + i s i n 2 θ ) 2 ! + . . . ] d θ \int _{ 0 }^{ 10\pi }{\left[ 1+{ (cos\theta +isin\theta ) }+\frac { { (cos2\theta +isin2\theta ) } }{ 2! } +... \right] } d\theta

= = 0 10 π [ 1 + c o s θ + c o s 2 θ 2 ! + c o s 3 θ 3 ! + . . . ] d θ \int _{ 0 }^{ 10\pi }{\left[ 1+{ cos\theta }+\frac { { cos2\theta } }{ 2! } +\frac { cos3\theta }{ 3! } +... \right] } d\theta

= = [ θ + s i n θ + s i n 2 θ 2 2 ! + s i n 3 θ 3 3 ! + . . . ] 0 10 π { \left[ \theta +sin\theta +\frac { sin2\theta }{ 2\cdot 2! } +\frac { sin3\theta }{ 3\cdot 3! } +... \right] }_{ 0 }^{ 10\pi }

= = 10 π 10 ( 3.14159 ) = 31.416 10\pi \approx 10(3.14159) = 31.416

You can also do it using Differentiation under integral sign.

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 9 months ago

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Do you have any fancy solutions for this?

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 9 months ago

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Not so fancy! But yeah as I said there is a solution using Feynman's method. Actually, I won't be posting it here because it is not original. I saw it somewhere on wikipedia when I started learning Diff. under integral sign. Let me give the link here . You can see this @Karthik Sharma

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Kartik Sharma Nice! Thanks.

PS - I love Richard Feynman. Found an interesting pdf on -- Integration - The Feynman way .

Karthik Sharma - 5 years, 9 months ago

Kartik Sharma, I got the idea, but cannot solve it that way. (I was in a hurry so I thought I could do it by differentiation under integral sign, hence the previous comment). Can you post a solution?

Karthik Sharma - 5 years, 9 months ago

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Karthik Sharma and Kartik Sharma????? Are you the same person? Or twins?

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Pi Han Goh No, In India, you can find many people with the same name as the last names of people aren't that unique (not at all) compared to other countries (I do not know very much about it though). That's why. But it seems like some scene from Sci-fi movie where I'm talking to myself. :D

Karthik Sharma - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Pi Han Goh Yeah actually it is very interesting. My parents named me especially "Kartik"(without the "h") just because in India, you can find people with name "Karthik" a lot more often than with "Kartik" but still that doesn't make much difference, or does it?

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 9 months ago

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@Kartik Sharma I don't think so. :D

Karthik Sharma - 5 years, 9 months ago

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