Differentiation? (Corrected)

Calculus Level 2

d d ( cos ( x ) ) cos ( 2015 x ) x = 2 π = ? \large { \left. \frac { d }{ d(\cos { (x) } ) } \cos { (2015x) } \right\vert _{ x=2\pi } } = \ ?


The answer is 4060225.

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1 solution

By the chain rule we have that d d u ( f ( x ) ) = d f d x d u d x , \dfrac{d}{du}(f(x)) = \dfrac{\dfrac{df}{dx}}{\dfrac{du}{dx}}, where u = u ( x ) . u = u(x).

In this case f ( x ) = cos ( 2015 x ) f(x) = \cos(2015x) and u ( x ) = cos ( x ) , u(x) = \cos(x), so

d d ( cos ( x ) ) cos ( 2015 x ) = 2015 sin ( 2015 x ) sin ( x ) = 2015 sin ( 2015 x ) sin ( x ) . \dfrac{d}{d(\cos(x))} \cos(2015x) = \dfrac{-2015\sin(2015x)}{-\sin(x)} = 2015* \dfrac{\sin(2015x)}{\sin(x)}.

Now this cannot be evaluates at x = 2 π x = 2\pi since it will be in the indeterminate form 0 0 , \frac{0}{0}, but we can evaluate it in the limit as x 2 π . x \rightarrow 2\pi. Letting u = x 2 π , u = x - 2\pi, we have that

lim x 2 π sin ( 2015 x ) sin ( x ) = lim u 0 sin ( 2015 ( u + 2 π ) ) sin ( u + 2 π ) = \lim_{x \rightarrow 2\pi} \dfrac{\sin(2015x)}{\sin(x)} = \lim_{u \rightarrow 0} \dfrac{\sin(2015(u + 2\pi))}{\sin(u + 2\pi)} =

lim u 0 sin ( 2015 u ) sin ( u ) = 2015 lim u 0 sin ( 2015 u ) 2015 u lim u 0 u sin ( u ) = 2015 , \lim_{u \rightarrow 0} \dfrac{\sin(2015u)}{\sin(u)} = 2015 * \lim_{u\rightarrow 0} \dfrac{\sin(2015u)}{2015u} * \lim_{u \rightarrow 0} \dfrac{u}{\sin(u)} = 2015,

since lim θ 0 sin ( θ ) θ = 1. \lim_{\theta \rightarrow 0} \dfrac{\sin(\theta)}{\theta} = 1. Thus the given expression, in the limit as x 2 π , x \rightarrow 2\pi, goes to 201 5 2 = 4060225 . 2015^{2} = \boxed{4060225}.

Moderator note:

Correct.

Bonus question : What would the answer be if I replace all the cosine functions with sine functions instead?

But why should we take a limit, when the derivative is indeterminate ? Why can't we say that the derivative of the function is undefined at that point( x = 2 π 2\pi ) ? @Brian Charlesworth

Manish Dash - 5 years, 9 months ago

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I thought the derivative was indeterminate at 2 π 2\pi as well, which was why I suggested to Julian to rephrase the problem as a limit, which he did at first. However, Pi Han Goh stated below that the "Chebyshev polynomial is continuous and differentiable everywhere", so the limit was then dropped. I haven't confirmed Pi Han Goh's statement for myself yet, but I have no reason to doubt him.

Brian Charlesworth - 5 years, 9 months ago

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It's a very simple idea. All these standard formulas ( like d d x ( x n ) = n x n 1 \dfrac{d}{dx}(x^{n})\,=\,n\cdot x^{n-1} ) or rules, like, product rule, quotient rule and chain rule are results that follows from the fundamental definition of differentiation.

Whenever we differentiate a function using these rules or formula(s), we assume that the function is differentiable throughout its entire domain (or at least at the point where the value of its derivate is to be determined ).

Now just because the value of the derivate at a point comes out to be undefined then this doesn't mean at all that the function is not differentiable at that point, if that would have been the case then using standard formula(s) and rules is wrong at the first place as they can be used only when the function under consideration is differentiable.

We've to check whether LHD \text{LHD} and RHD \text{RHD} of f ( x ) f(x) are equal or not at x = 2 π x\,=\,2\pi (that's what you did). If they're same then f ( x ) f(x) is differentiable at x = 2 π x\,=\,2\pi and it's value can be determined.

Aditya Sky - 4 years, 8 months ago

@Julian Poon Nice problem, but I do have a concern about evaluating this expression at x = 2 π . x = 2\pi. It does go to the posted answer as x 2 π , x \rightarrow 2\pi, so you may need to consider phrasing the problem as a limit.

Brian Charlesworth - 5 years, 12 months ago

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Yeah ok. Btw, this problem also shows that P n ( 1 ) = n 2 P'_{n}(1)=n^{2} , where P n ( x ) P_{n}(x) is the n n th chebychev polynomial of first kind.

Julian Poon - 5 years, 12 months ago

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Oh, I didn't know that. I should spend some time reviewing chebyshev polynomials, then. :)

Brian Charlesworth - 5 years, 12 months ago

You don't actually need to put the limit, the chebyshev polynomial is continuous and differentiable everywhere.

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 12 months ago

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@Pi Han Goh Well... I was just not sure...

Julian Poon - 5 years, 12 months ago

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@Julian Poon You can express cos ( 2015 x ) \cos(2015 x) as a sum of powers of cos ( x ) \cos(x) , which is differentiable by cos ( x ) \cos(x) at x = 2 π x=2 \pi , right?

Alex Burgess - 2 years, 2 months ago

How about using L'Hopitâls rule to a differentiable result?

Kevin Guo - 4 years, 6 months ago

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Much faster yes

Thorbjorn Frommelt - 3 years, 2 months ago

2015 is the answer

Angel Raygoza - 11 months ago

I did the same way

Shashank Rustagi - 5 years, 12 months ago

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