Dipole and Ring Dynamics

This problem is based on a suggestion from Neeraj Anand Badgujar .

A particle with mass m = 1 m = 1 and charge q = + 1 q = +1 is confined to the ring x 2 + y 2 = 1 x^2 + y^2 = 1 , where it can otherwise move freely. There is a charge q 1 = + 1 q_1 = +1 fixed at position ( x 1 , y 1 ) = ( 0 , 0.1 ) (x_1, y_1) = (0, 0.1) , and there is a charge q 2 = 1 q_2= -1 fixed at position ( x 2 , y 2 ) = ( 0 , 0.1 ) (x_2, y_2) = (0, -0.1) . The particle on the ring is initially at rest at position ( x , y ) = ( cos ( π / 6 ) , sin ( π / 6 ) ) (x,y) = \Big(\cos (\pi/6), \sin(\pi/6) \Big) .

What is the time period of the particle's motion?

Details and Assumptions:
1) Electric permittivity ϵ 0 = 1 \epsilon_0 = 1
2) There is no gravity


The answer is 68.48.

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1 solution

Karan Chatrath
May 5, 2020

Consider the particle to be at any arbitrary point on the ring. Its coordinates can be parameterised in polar coordinates as such:

x = cos θ x = \cos{\theta} y = sin θ y = \sin{\theta}

The potential energy of the particle due to the di-pole is:

V ( θ ) = 1 4 π ( 1 cos 2 θ + ( sin θ 0.1 ) 2 1 cos 2 θ + ( sin θ + 0.1 ) 2 ) V(\theta) = \frac{1}{4\pi}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\cos^2{\theta} + \left(\sin{\theta} - 0.1\right)^2}} - \frac{1}{\sqrt{\cos^2{\theta} + \left(\sin{\theta} + 0.1\right)^2}}\right)

The kinetic energy of the particle is:

T = x ˙ 2 + y ˙ 2 2 = θ ˙ 2 2 T = \frac{\dot{x}^2 + \dot{y}^2}{2} = \frac{\dot{\theta}^2}{2}

From this point, the problem can be easily solved using Lagrangian mechanics and numerical integration. However, I present a semi-analytical approach as follows.

In order to understand how the particle moves, it is important to first understand that since there are no dissipative forces acting on the system, energy is conserved. This means:

T + V ( θ ) = V i n i t + T i n i t T + V(\theta) = V_{\mathrm{init}}+T_{\mathrm{init}}

Here, the initial kinetic energy is zero as the particle is initially at rest and the initial potential energy can be found by substituting θ = π / 6 \theta = \pi/6 in the expression for the potential energy. This gives:

T + V ( θ ) = V i n i t T + V(\theta) = V_{\mathrm{init}}

  • So, if the particle on the ring has to speed up, it must speed up at the expense of potential energy.
  • Moreover, the potential energy can never exceed its initial value as that would result in negative kinetic energy which is impossible. Therefore, the particle's motion lies between two values of θ \theta such that these conditions remain satisfied at all times.
  • Using a bit of elementary trigonometry, it is easy to see that the potential energy takes the same value when θ = π 6 \theta = \frac{\pi}{6} , θ = 5 π 6 \theta = \frac{5\pi}{6} , and θ = 7 π 6 \theta = \frac{-7\pi}{6} .
  • Therefore the particle either oscillates between π 6 θ 5 π 6 \frac{\pi}{6} \le \theta \le \frac{5\pi}{6} or 7 π 6 θ π 6 \frac{-7\pi}{6} \le \theta \le \frac{\pi}{6} .
  • To confirm the range of the particle's motion, a plot of the potential energy vs. θ \theta is shown as follows.

In the plot, θ \theta ranges between 7 π 6 θ 5 π 6 \frac{-7\pi}{6} \le \theta \le \frac{5\pi}{6} . The black dashed line is V i n i t V_{\mathrm{init}} . The potential energy intersects the black line at three points just as mentioned earlier. The three points being θ = π 6 \theta = \frac{\pi}{6} , θ = 5 π 6 \theta = \frac{5\pi}{6} , and θ = 7 π 6 \theta = \frac{-7\pi}{6} .

It can be seen that in the interval 7 π 6 θ π 6 \frac{-7\pi}{6} \le \theta \le \frac{\pi}{6} , the particle's potential energy is lower than or equal to the initial potential energy. Therefore, the range θ \theta is:

7 π 6 θ π 6 \frac{-7\pi}{6} \le \theta \le \frac{\pi}{6}

Now, having established the bounds of motion, it is important to know that the particle moves from one extreme position to another in half a time period. Using all this information and the energy conservation principle, we get:

T = V i n i t V ( θ ) T = V_{\mathrm{init}} - V(\theta) θ ˙ 2 2 = V i n i t V ( θ ) \implies \frac{\dot{\theta}^2}{2} = V_{\mathrm{init}} - V(\theta) θ ˙ = 2 ( V i n i t V ( θ ) ) \implies \dot{\theta} = -\sqrt{2\left(V_{\mathrm{init}} - V(\theta) \right)}

An extra negative sign is introduced as since time increases, θ \theta decreases. Let the time period be T p T_p Separating variables and integrating:

0 T p / 2 d t = π / 6 7 π / 6 d θ 2 ( V i n i t V ( θ ) ) \int_{0}^{T_p/2} dt = -\int_{\pi/6}^{-7 \pi/6} \frac{d\theta}{\sqrt{2\left(V_{\mathrm{init}} - V(\theta)\right)}} T p = 2 7 π / 6 π / 6 d θ 2 ( V i n i t V ( θ ) ) 68.4807 \boxed{T_p = 2\int_{-7 \pi/6}^{\pi/6} \frac{d\theta}{\sqrt{2\left(V_{\mathrm{init}} - V(\theta)\right)}} \approx 68.4807}

@Karan Chatrath Can we solve it using Newton laws

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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I see you edited this comment and deleted others. To answer your question, yes we can, but it would be much more tedious than what I have already done. While applying Newton's laws, you have to consider the reaction force between the particle and the ring. This introduces an additional variable in the problem. Using Lagrangian mechanics and energy conservation allows us to avoid this extra work.

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@Karan Chatrath where did you use Lagrangian??? Did at that point conservation of( potential +k•E)
No matter how tedious it will be,I want to be done through Newton, tell me the concept I will do.

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member In my previous comment I said 'Using Lagrangian mechanics and energy conservation allows us to avoid this extra work'. Instead of 'and', I should have typed 'or'. That was a typo. I did not use Lagrangian mechanics in this problem.

As for the Newtonian approach, I suggest you refer to the cone dynamics problem where I have shown how to approach a dynamics problem using the laws of motion.

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@Karan Chatrath @Karan Chatrath can you give me link of any problem??

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member https://brilliant.org/problems/cone-surface-dynamics/?ref_id=1588833

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

@A Former Brilliant Member The concept remains the same. First, identify the forces acting on the particle. In this case, it is electrostatic force on the particle due to two fixed charges and a normal force on the particle due to the ring. Resolve each of these three forces along the X and Y directions and apply the second law of motion to obtain the acceleration along each direction. The accelerations you will get will be in terms of the normal force. Eliminate the normal force to obtain the final equation of motion. The expressions that you will work with are going to be very large.

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

@Karan Chatrath why did you integrate at last second step (L.H.S) from zero to T p 2 \textcolor{#20A900}{\frac{T_{p}}{2}}

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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This is because the motion is periodic. The fact that motion is periodic is mentioned in the problem so I did not make the extra effort to prove that it is. In fact, proving that rigorously is difficult.

I mentioned in the solution that 'it is important to know that the particle moves from one extreme position to another in half a time period'. In periodic motion, a particle moves from its initial position back to its initial position in one time period. So it must move to from initial position to its other extreme position in half that time.

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@Karan Chatrath THANKS finally I understood your whole solution. Your solution is awesome and perfect

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

@Karan Chatrath agar apne part2 solve kar liya hai to. Please pehle sol. mai daluga Ok!

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member Okay, I will share my solution after you do.

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@Karan Chatrath @Karan Chatrath Bhaiya mera i m i n i_{min} second order differential equation aarha 10 v 1 + v ˙ = 0.1 v ¨ 10v-1+\dot{v}=-0.1\ddot{v} iske solve karenge to v as a function of t aayega. Usko differntiate karenge time ke respect me, phir equal to 0.pgir vo jo time aayega usko vaapis put karenge.Bina kisi tool ke ye khud se nhi hoga i think.???

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member The derivative of the velocity will have many roots. More than two, actually. You have to find all those roots and do a second derivative test to see which are local minima. Here too, you will find that many (more than 2) points fulfil the criterion for a local minimum. This work will be tedious.

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

@A Former Brilliant Member Solve the differential equation and plot the graph of v ( t ) v(t) . Spot the minima using that graph. You can do it on Excel or over the internet by using this link:

https://www.desmos.com/calculator

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@Karan Chatrath @Karan Chatrath ? Mujhe sirf 1 order aati hai bhaiya?

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

@Karan Chatrath Sir without graph how can we detect that range of θ \theta is 7 π 6 θ π 6 \frac{-7π}{6}≤\theta≤\frac{π}{6}

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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By using Rolle's theorem to show that there exist turning points in the graph, and also by computing the derivative of the P.E at the points θ = π 6 \theta = \frac{\pi}{6} , θ = 5 π 6 \theta = \frac{5\pi}{6} and θ = 7 π 6 \theta = \frac{-7\pi}{6} . Check the sign of the derivatives. At θ = π 6 \theta = \frac{\pi}{6} the derivative will be positive and therefore the motion cannot exceed θ = π 6 \theta = \frac{\pi}{6} as the PE cannot exceed its initial value. At θ = 7 π 6 \theta = \frac{-7\pi}{6} the derivative will be negative which means that PE will decrease as θ \theta exceeds θ = 7 π 6 \theta = \frac{-7\pi}{6}

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

Plotting a graph is easier for me so I did it this way.

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@Karan Chatrath and how did you solve that last integral??

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member Substituted all expressions and used Wolfram-Alpha for the rest.

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@Karan Chatrath @Karan Chatrath Ok! BTW wolfram doesn't show solution of many integrals , how can we see solution of hard integrals??

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member For single integrals:

https://www.integral-calculator.com/

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@Karan Chatrath @Karan Chatrath Yeah its good. I like it. BTW double integrals??

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member I don't know about any other online tool apart from Wolfram-Alpha.

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

The equilibrium position of the particle is at ( 0 , 1 ) (0,-1) . The amplitude of motion is 2 π 3 \dfrac{2π}{3} . So the particle will move between 7 π 6 -\dfrac{7π}{6} and \dfrac{π}{6}. The problem with such problems is that they can't be solved analytically. Numerical technique is a must.

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

@Karan Chatrath Using wolfram I am getting this but what does c 1 c_{1} and c 2 c_{2} mean????

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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They are arbitrary constants. You can find them by substituting the initial conditions v ( 0 ) = ? v(0) = ? and v ˙ ( 0 ) = ? \dot{v}(0)=?

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@Karan Chatrath I am getting c 1 = 0.1 c_{1}=-0.1 c 2 = 0.1732 c_{2}=-0.1732

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member @Karan Chatrath after putting c1 and c2 I plotted this graph

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member Check the 2nd order equation that you obtained. You might have made an algebraic error while deriving that.

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@Karan Chatrath @Karan Chatrath now again after solving I am getting now 100 v 10 + v ˙ + v ¨ = 0 100v-10+\dot{v}+\ddot{v}=0

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member This is correct. I will not reply anymore.

Karan Chatrath - 1 year, 1 month ago

@A Former Brilliant Member @Karan Chatrath are these values correct c1 and c2??

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 1 month ago

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