Dirac Delta Potential

Recall that the Dirac delta "function" (it is more properly a distribution) is thought of as a function δ ( x ) \delta(x) such that δ ( x ) = 0 \delta(x) = 0 for all x 0 x \neq 0 , but such that f ( x ) δ ( x ) d x = f ( 0 ) \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)\delta(x)\,dx \; = \; f(0) for all continuous functions f f . The Dirac delta potential below can be seen as an idealization of (and approximation for) a very deep, but very narrow square well potential V ε ( x ) = { 1 2 ε V 0 x < ε 0 x > ε V_\varepsilon(x) \; = \; \left\{ \begin{array}{lll}-\tfrac{1}{2\varepsilon}V_0 & \hspace{1cm} & |x| < \varepsilon \\ 0 & & |x| > \varepsilon \end{array}\right. in the limit as ε 0 \varepsilon \to 0 .


A one-dimensional quantum mechanical particle of mass m m moves in the presence of a potential V 0 δ -V_0\delta , where V 0 > 0 V_0 > 0 and δ \delta is the Dirac delta "function". Thus the wave function ψ \psi satisfies the time-independent Schrodinger equation 2 2 m d 2 ψ d x 2 V 0 δ ( x ) ψ ( x ) = E ψ -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{d^{2}\psi}{dx^2} - V_0\delta(x)\psi(x) \; = \; E\psi when the particle has energy E E .

There is only one bound state for this potential (there is only one value of E E which allows a nonzero solution ψ \psi of the wave equation such that ψ 2 |\psi|^2 over R \mathbb{R} exists). The bound state energy E E is of the form E = a m V 0 2 2 E \; = \; \frac{amV_0^2}{\hbar^2} for some constant a a . What is the value of this constant?


The answer is -0.5.

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1 solution

Mark Hennings
Feb 4, 2021

If x 0 x \neq 0 the wave equation states that

ψ ( x ) + 2 m E 2 ψ ( x ) = 0 \psi''(x) + \frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}\psi(x) \; = \; 0

If E > 0 E > 0 solutions of this equation are sinusoidal, and so will not give bound states. Thus E < 0 E < 0 . If we write E = 2 k 2 2 m E = -\frac{\hbar^2k^2}{2m} , then our bound state must be of the form ψ ( x ) = { A e k x x > 0 B e k x x < 0 \psi(x) \; =\; \left\{ \begin{array}{lll}Ae^{-kx} & \hspace{1cm} & x >0 \\ Be^{kx} & & x < 0 \end{array}\right. for some constants A , B A,B . Certainly ψ \psi must be continuous, and so A = B A=B .

The singularity of the Dirac delta function means that ψ \psi' will not be continuous. Integrating the wave equation from u -u to u u gives

2 2 m [ ψ ( u ) ψ ( u ) ] V 0 u u δ ( x ) ψ ( x ) d x = E u u ψ ( x ) d x 2 A k m e k u V 0 A = E u u ψ ( x ) d x = 2 E A k ( 1 e k u ) \begin{aligned} -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\big[\psi'(u) - \psi'(-u)\big] - V_0\int_{-u}^u \delta(x)\psi(x)\,dx & = \; E\int_{-u}^u\psi(x)\,dx \\ \frac{\hbar^2Ak}{m}e^{-ku} - V_0A & = \; E\int_{-u}^u \psi(x)\,dx \; = \; \tfrac{2EA}{k}(1 - e^{-ku})\end{aligned}

for any u > 0 u > 0 . Letting u 0 + u \to 0+ , we deduce that 2 A k m = V 0 A \frac{\hbar^2Ak}{m} \; = \; V_0A and so, for a nonzero bound solution, we must have k = m V 0 2 k = \frac{mV_0}{\hbar^2} , and hence the bound state energy is 2 k 2 2 m = m V 0 2 2 2 -\frac{\hbar^2k^2}{2m} \; = \; -\frac{mV_0^2}{2\hbar^2} which makes a = 1 2 a = \boxed{-\tfrac12} .

Very nice problem. I could not solve it. I tried approaching this using the Fourier transform as such:

P ψ ( x ) V o δ ( x ) ψ ( x ) = E ψ ( x ) -P \psi''(x)-V_o \delta(x) \psi(x) = E\psi(x)

The fourier transform definition used is:

F ψ ( k ) = ψ ( x ) e i k x d x F_{\psi}(k) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\psi(x) \mathrm{e}^{-ikx} \ dx

where P P is the constant comprising of the reduced Planck's constant and mass.

Taking Fourier transform on both sides:

P ( k 2 F ψ ( k ) ) V o ψ ( 0 ) = E F ψ ( k ) -P(-k^2 F_{\psi}(k) ) - V_o \psi(0) = EF_{\psi}(k) F ψ ( k ) = V o ψ ( 0 ) P k 2 E \implies F_{\psi}(k) =\frac{V_o \psi(0) }{Pk^2 - E}

The wave function is therefore the inverse fourier transform of F ψ F_{\psi} .

ψ ( x ) = 1 2 π F ψ ( k ) e i k x d k \psi(x) = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}F_{\psi}(k) \mathrm{e}^{ikx} \ dk

I just could not solve this beyond this point. I even tried a numerical route but the introduction of the Dirac delta makes the numerical problem messy.

Karan Chatrath - 4 months, 1 week ago

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Your Fourier transform is not going to be square-integrable unless E < 0 E < 0 , so the energy must be negative. Consider the Fourier transform of e a x e^{-a|x|} . That will get your answer, for the right value of a > 0 a>0 , with the right negative energy...

Mark Hennings - 4 months, 1 week ago

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I finally got the answer. I just did not consider the possibility of E < 0 E<0 when reached the stage of inverse fourier transforming. Thank you for the tip.

I am thinking of how to solve your latest problem and it seems like I am out of my depth there as well. I am trying to find a solution to the time independent equation of the form:

ψ ( x ) = k = 0 a k x k \psi(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} a_k x^k

And then, I am trying to get relations for the coefficients a k a_k . I don't know if this is correct as I seem to be getting nowhere at the moment.

Karan Chatrath - 4 months, 1 week ago

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@Karan Chatrath If you are going to do it that way, let me give you a few hints. Start looking at the Hamiltonian without the 1 2 x \tfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}x term (just 1 2 ( P 2 + Q 2 ) \tfrac12(P^2+Q^2) ). Differential equation theory would then suggest trying solutions of the form e 1 2 x 2 f ( x ) e^{-\frac12x^2}f(x) . Try writing f ( x ) f(x) as a power series expansion, and obtain a recurrence relation for the coefficients. For some values of E E , the power series for f ( x ) f(x) terminates, and f ( x ) f(x) becomes a polynomial. That leaves you with two questions: (1) why is termination of the power series necessary to give bound state solutions, (2) how do you incorporate the extra term into the Hamiltonian?

Mark Hennings - 4 months, 1 week ago

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@Mark Hennings I have started slowly working out the steps as you have suggested. Thank you for the suggestions. I will try and post a solution if I succeed, despite you having done so already.

Karan Chatrath - 4 months ago

Nice solution, Mr Mark Hennings and nice question. Do you remember me ? Hot Integral guy haha! You always post solution on my questions! Hope you are fine

Aman Rajput - 1 month, 2 weeks ago

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