Recall that the Dirac delta "function" (it is more properly a distribution) is thought of as a function δ ( x ) such that δ ( x ) = 0 for all x = 0 , but such that ∫ − ∞ ∞ f ( x ) δ ( x ) d x = f ( 0 ) for all continuous functions f . The Dirac delta potential below can be seen as an idealization of (and approximation for) a very deep, but very narrow square well potential V ε ( x ) = { − 2 ε 1 V 0 0 ∣ x ∣ < ε ∣ x ∣ > ε in the limit as ε → 0 .
A one-dimensional quantum mechanical particle of mass m moves in the presence of a potential − V 0 δ , where V 0 > 0 and δ is the Dirac delta "function". Thus the wave function ψ satisfies the time-independent Schrodinger equation − 2 m ℏ 2 d x 2 d 2 ψ − V 0 δ ( x ) ψ ( x ) = E ψ when the particle has energy E .
There is only one bound state for this potential (there is only one value of E which allows a nonzero solution ψ of the wave equation such that ∣ ψ ∣ 2 over R exists). The bound state energy E is of the form E = ℏ 2 a m V 0 2 for some constant a . What is the value of this constant?
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Very nice problem. I could not solve it. I tried approaching this using the Fourier transform as such:
− P ψ ′ ′ ( x ) − V o δ ( x ) ψ ( x ) = E ψ ( x )
The fourier transform definition used is:
F ψ ( k ) = ∫ − ∞ ∞ ψ ( x ) e − i k x d x
where P is the constant comprising of the reduced Planck's constant and mass.
Taking Fourier transform on both sides:
− P ( − k 2 F ψ ( k ) ) − V o ψ ( 0 ) = E F ψ ( k ) ⟹ F ψ ( k ) = P k 2 − E V o ψ ( 0 )
The wave function is therefore the inverse fourier transform of F ψ .
ψ ( x ) = 2 π 1 ∫ − ∞ ∞ F ψ ( k ) e i k x d k
I just could not solve this beyond this point. I even tried a numerical route but the introduction of the Dirac delta makes the numerical problem messy.
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Your Fourier transform is not going to be square-integrable unless E < 0 , so the energy must be negative. Consider the Fourier transform of e − a ∣ x ∣ . That will get your answer, for the right value of a > 0 , with the right negative energy...
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I finally got the answer. I just did not consider the possibility of E < 0 when reached the stage of inverse fourier transforming. Thank you for the tip.
I am thinking of how to solve your latest problem and it seems like I am out of my depth there as well. I am trying to find a solution to the time independent equation of the form:
ψ ( x ) = k = 0 ∑ ∞ a k x k
And then, I am trying to get relations for the coefficients a k . I don't know if this is correct as I seem to be getting nowhere at the moment.
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@Karan Chatrath – If you are going to do it that way, let me give you a few hints. Start looking at the Hamiltonian without the 2 1 x term (just 2 1 ( P 2 + Q 2 ) ). Differential equation theory would then suggest trying solutions of the form e − 2 1 x 2 f ( x ) . Try writing f ( x ) as a power series expansion, and obtain a recurrence relation for the coefficients. For some values of E , the power series for f ( x ) terminates, and f ( x ) becomes a polynomial. That leaves you with two questions: (1) why is termination of the power series necessary to give bound state solutions, (2) how do you incorporate the extra term into the Hamiltonian?
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@Mark Hennings – I have started slowly working out the steps as you have suggested. Thank you for the suggestions. I will try and post a solution if I succeed, despite you having done so already.
Nice solution, Mr Mark Hennings and nice question. Do you remember me ? Hot Integral guy haha! You always post solution on my questions! Hope you are fine
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If x = 0 the wave equation states that
ψ ′ ′ ( x ) + ℏ 2 2 m E ψ ( x ) = 0
If E > 0 solutions of this equation are sinusoidal, and so will not give bound states. Thus E < 0 . If we write E = − 2 m ℏ 2 k 2 , then our bound state must be of the form ψ ( x ) = { A e − k x B e k x x > 0 x < 0 for some constants A , B . Certainly ψ must be continuous, and so A = B .
The singularity of the Dirac delta function means that ψ ′ will not be continuous. Integrating the wave equation from − u to u gives
− 2 m ℏ 2 [ ψ ′ ( u ) − ψ ′ ( − u ) ] − V 0 ∫ − u u δ ( x ) ψ ( x ) d x m ℏ 2 A k e − k u − V 0 A = E ∫ − u u ψ ( x ) d x = E ∫ − u u ψ ( x ) d x = k 2 E A ( 1 − e − k u )
for any u > 0 . Letting u → 0 + , we deduce that m ℏ 2 A k = V 0 A and so, for a nonzero bound solution, we must have k = ℏ 2 m V 0 , and hence the bound state energy is − 2 m ℏ 2 k 2 = − 2 ℏ 2 m V 0 2 which makes a = − 2 1 .