Divisibility Rules! Base 2015

In base 10, the divisiblity rule for 11 works as follows:

Suppose we have a number a 6 a 5 a 4 a 3 a 2 a 1 a_6a_5a_4a_3a_2a_1 . Then we know whether this number is divisible by 11 if and only if the numbers in odd places ( a 1 , a 3 , a 5 a_1, a_3, a_5 ) and the numbers in even places( a 2 , a 4 , a 6 a_2, a_4, a_6 ) have a difference divisible by 11, i.e. ( a 1 + a 3 + a 5 ) ( a 2 + a 4 + a 6 ) (a_1+ a_3+ a_5)-(a_2+ a_4+ a_6) is divisible by 11.

In base 2015, for how many numbers can this divisibility rule be applied (excluding 1)?

Submit your answer as the sum of all numbers for which this divisibility rule can be applied.


The answer is 6551.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

1 solution

Manuel Kahayon
Jun 9, 2016

Relevant wiki: Application of Divisibility Rules

Why does the divisibility rule in base 10 10 work for 11 11 ? This is precisely because 10 1 ( m o d 11 ) 10 \equiv -1 \pmod {11} . This means that any number in the form a 6 a 5 a 4 a 3 a 2 a 1 a_6a_5a_4a_3a_2a_1 can be expressed as a 6 a 5 a 4 a 3 a 2 a 1 = a 6 ( 1 0 5 ) + a 5 ( 1 0 4 ) + a 4 ( 1 0 3 ) + a 3 ( 1 0 2 ) + a 2 ( 10 ) + a 1 a_6a_5a_4a_3a_2a_1 = a_6(10^5)+a_5(10^4)+a_4(10^3)+a_3(10^2)+a_2(10)+a_1

But, a 6 ( 1 0 5 ) + a 5 ( 1 0 4 ) + a 4 ( 1 0 3 ) + a 3 ( 1 0 2 ) + a 2 ( 10 ) + a 1 a 6 ( 1 ) 5 + a 5 ( 1 ) 4 + a 4 ( 1 ) 3 + a 3 ( 1 ) 2 + a 2 ( 1 ) 1 + a 1 ( 1 ) 0 ( m o d 11 ) a_6(10^5)+a_5(10^4)+a_4(10^3)+a_3(10^2)+a_2(10)+a_1 \equiv a_6(-1)^5+a_5(-1)^4+a_4(-1)^3+a_3(-1)^2+a_2(-1)^1+a_1(-1)^0 \pmod{11} (Since 10 1 ( m o d 11 ) 10 \equiv -1 \pmod {11} )

Therefore the whole expression is equivalent to a 6 + a 5 a 4 + a 3 a 2 + a 1 ( m o d 11 ) -a_6+a_5-a_4+a_3-a_2+a_1 \pmod{11} .

In the same manner, for the question, we need numbers n n such that 2015 1 ( m o d n ) 2015 \equiv -1 \pmod n , or 2016 0 ( m o d n ) 2016 \equiv 0 \pmod{n} .

Now, the sum of the numbers which satisfy is equal to the sum of all the positive divisors of 2016 2016 reduced by 1.

Since 2016 = 2 5 3 2 7 2016 = 2^5 \cdot3^2 \cdot 7 , the sum of all its divisors is ( 1 + 2 + 4 + 8 + 16 + 32 ) ( 1 + 3 + 9 ) ( 1 + 7 ) = 6552 (1+2+4+8+16+32)(1+3+9)(1+7) = 6552 .

Therefore, we just subtract 1 1 from the sum to obtain the answer 6551 \boxed{6551} .

What about rule for divisibility by 2014 2014 and 5 5 ?

Since. 5 5 is a factor of 2015 2015 , the last digit of a number being divisible by 5 would be sufficient to determine divisibility by 5. Similarly, sum of digits of a numebr being divisible by 2014 2014 would assure divisibility of the number by 2014 2014 .

Log in to reply

I only asked for the numbers which have the same divisibility rule as 11 11 in base 10 10 . 2014 2014 also has a divisibility rule, but not the same as that of 2016 2016 .

Manuel Kahayon - 5 years ago

Log in to reply

But, then there is another issue. The divisibility rule can test the divisibility by 2016 only. If a number fails the test, you can only reliably say that the number is not divisible by 2016. You cannot comment on its divisibility by any of the factors of 2016. It only gives out a sufficient condition for divisibility, not 'necessary and sufficient' condition.

Eg : 1 5 2015 = 202 0 10 15_{2015} = 2020_{10} . This is divisible by 4 4 . However, it fails the divisibility test.

If you are talking about numbers for which the 'divisiblity by 11' type of test can be applied, in base 2015, the only case is 2016. For the factors, it is not a divisibility test, but a sufficiency for divisibility.

Log in to reply

@Janardhanan Sivaramakrishnan No, 1 5 2015 15_{2015} also passes the divisibility test by 4 4 , since 1 5 2015 15_{2015} gives 1 5 = 4 1-5 = -4 when subjected to the divisibility test, and 4 4 4|-4 . Note that any number which divides 2016, i.e. 2016 0 ( m o d n ) 2016 \equiv 0 \pmod {n} has the same divisibility test above base 2015, since 2015 1 ( m o d n ) 2015 \equiv -1 \pmod{n} , which implies that any number in the form . . . A B C D E 2015 = . . . + A ( 2015 ) 4 + B ( 2015 ) 3 + C ( 2015 ) 2 + D ( 2015 ) + E . . . + A ( 1 ) 4 + B ( 1 ) 3 + C ( 1 ) 2 + D ( 1 ) + E ( m o d n ) ...ABCDE_{2015} = ... + A(2015)^4+B(2015)^3+C(2015)^2+D(2015)+E \equiv ...+A(-1)^4+B(-1)^3+C(-1)^2+D(-1)+E \pmod {n} , since 2015 1 ( m o d n ) 2015 \equiv -1 \pmod{n} . This implies that if . . . + A B + C D + E 0 ( m o d n ) ...+A-B+C-D+E \equiv 0 \pmod {n} , then . . . A B C D E 0 ( m o d n ) ...ABCDE \equiv 0 \pmod{n} .

Manuel Kahayon - 5 years ago

Log in to reply

@Manuel Kahayon That is an interesting property. Good problem. Thank you.

Would we want to consider that the case of 2 having a decimal pattern of 1? For example ( n 1 ) b a s e n (n-1) base n follows a similar rule as all factors of n 1 n-1 will have a period 1. So g c d ( 2014 , 2016 ) = 2 gcd(2014,2016)=2 thus you would want to remove that case.

Jaleb Jay - 4 years, 12 months ago

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...