Does It Matter?

Amy and Blake are each dealt two cards from a standard deck . Given no additional information, the probability that Blake is dealt a pair is 3 51 = 1 17 \frac{3}{51} = \frac{1}{17} since his second card needs to match his first card.

Given that Amy is dealt a pair, what is the probability that Blake has a pair?

Less than 1 17 \dfrac{1}{17} 1 17 \frac{1}{17} Greater than 1 17 \dfrac{1}{17}

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6 solutions

Rohit Sachdeva
Jan 18, 2017

Just for the sake of keeping track let's assume Amy has already drawn a pair of 4s. So we have 50 cards left: having 2 4s and rest 12x4 cards.

Now its Blake's turn & we have 2 cases,

1. Blake draws a 4 first, then again a 4

The probability of this is 2 50 × 1 49 \frac{2}{50} × \frac{1}{49}

2. Blake draws anything except a 4 & then again the same number to form a pair

The probability of this is 48 50 × 3 49 \frac{48}{50} × \frac{3}{49}

So the total probability is 144 + 2 49 × 50 = 1 16.78 \frac{144+2}{49×50} = \frac{1}{16.78}

As there are ( 4 2 ) = 6 \binom{4}{2} = 6 pairs within each of the 13 13 denominations, there are a total of 13 6 = 78 13*6 = 78 different pairs that can be drawn. As Amy has a pair of some denomination, there are just 2 2 cards, and hence just one pair, left within this denomination, and so there are still 12 6 + 1 = 73 12*6 + 1 = 73 pairs left to be drawn out of the 50 50 remaining cards. Thus the probability that Blake draws a pair given that Amy has drawn a pair is

73 ( 50 2 ) = 73 25 49 1 16.78 > 1 17 \dfrac{73}{\binom{50}{2}} = \dfrac{73}{25*49} \approx \dfrac{1}{16.78} \gt \dfrac{1}{17} .

So, somewhat counterintuitively, Blake's chance of having drawn a pair is greater than Amy's, given that Amy did in fact draw a pair.

Great! Without doing the explicit probability calculation, you can determine it's greater than 1/17 by comparing this to the case where Amy does not have a pair. Do you see how?

Eli Ross Staff - 4 years, 4 months ago

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I point this out because you wouldn't have a calculator in a card game, so simpler math can be very valuable.

Eli Ross Staff - 4 years, 4 months ago

If Amy has not been dealt a pair, then the two cards she does draw eliminates 3 + 3 = 6 3 + 3 = 6 of the possible pairs, so Blake's chances of having a pair then becomes

72 ( 50 2 ) = 72 25 49 1 17.014 < 1 17 \dfrac{72}{\binom{50}{2}} = \dfrac{72}{25*49} \approx \dfrac{1}{17.014} \lt \dfrac{1}{17} .

This results in an even narrower difference that the previous calculation, (albeit in the reverse direction), so I'm not clear yet how it offers any intuitive help to consider this case first. I'll give it some more thought, though.

Brian Charlesworth - 4 years, 4 months ago

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You're pretty much there. When Amy has a pair, 5 pairs are removed. When she doesn't, 6 pairs are removed. A weighted average across these two cases must equal the overall probability of Blake having a pair, which we know is 1 17 . \frac{1}{17}. Therefore...

Eli Ross Staff - 4 years, 4 months ago

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@Eli Ross Great observation about the number of positive outcomes. It may initially be counter intuitive (and I admit I answered this problem wrongly) that drawing a pair makes it more likely that the next 2 cards forms a pair. However, it is because the first 2 cards are a pair, that allows for more pair possibilities in the next cards.

To stretch this example to the extreme (though it's not a perfect extension), if we are given that the first 50 cards always form pairs, then we're very certain that the last 2 cards form a pair.

Calvin Lin Staff - 4 years, 4 months ago

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@Calvin Lin If Clarissa joins in the game and we know that Amy and Blake have drawn pairs, then my calculation for the probability that Clarissa also draws a pair is 210 3431 1 16.34 \dfrac{210}{3431} \approx \dfrac{1}{16.34} . It would be quite complicated to develop a general formula, but as you note, we know the endpoint is that P(26th player has pair | previous 25 players have pairs) = 1.

Brian Charlesworth - 4 years, 4 months ago

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@Brian Charlesworth The question isn't perfectly stated because the answer would depend on which pairs Amy and Blake drew. If the pairs had the same numerical value, then the probability would be higher. Using Eli's observation, if the pairs have the same numerical value then we're removing 6 pairs. If the pairs have different numerical values, then we're removing 10 pairs.

Calvin Lin Staff - 4 years, 4 months ago

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@Calvin Lin I factored in to my calculation that we don't know which pairs Amy and Blake drew, just that they drew pairs. So the calculation is

1 73 × 72 ( 48 2 ) + 72 73 × 68 ( 48 2 ) \dfrac{1}{73} \times \dfrac{72}{\dbinom{48}{2}} + \dfrac{72}{73} \times \dfrac{68}{\dbinom{48}{2}} .

Once we know Amy's pair there are 73 73 pairs that Blake can obtain; in one of these cases Blake's pair has the same denomination as Amy's, and in the other 72 72 it is a different denomination.

Edit: I wasn't the one who downvoted your reply; I don't know why anyone would have done that, @Calvin Lin .

Brian Charlesworth - 4 years, 4 months ago

@Eli Ross ... Therefore the probabilities of the two scenarios must straddle 1/17. Since I don't trust my "intuition" anymore, which would indicate (correctly, this time) that if we don't know the result of Amy's draw then Blake's draw essentially becomes an independent event, I still had to convince myself using the calculations above that in this scenario P(Blake pair) = P(Blake pair and Amy pair) + P(Blake pair and no Amy pair) = 1/17.

Brian Charlesworth - 4 years, 4 months ago

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@Brian Charlesworth A new problem inspired by this remark.

Eli Ross Staff - 4 years, 4 months ago

@Eli Ross Nice, I didn't think of doing it like that.

I worked it out by considering a different scenario:

If you draw two cards from a standard deck, what is the probability of getting a pair given that the first card is not a red ace?

The answer to that is still the original 1 / 17 1/17 .

Now split it into two sub-scenarios:

S1. Neither card is a red ace

S2. The second card is a red ace and the first card is not

The crux of the matter is to see that P(pair:S2) < 1 / 17 < 1/17 (why?), from which it follows that P(pair:S1) > 1 / 17 > 1/17 as desired.

Peter Byers - 4 years, 4 months ago
Aviel Livay
Feb 4, 2017

Amy has already been dealt a pair. The probability that the first card dealt to Blake shall be of the same type is 1 25 \frac{1}{25} . Only 1 out of 49 left cards could form a pair for Blake : 1 25 1 49 \dfrac{1}{25}*\dfrac{1}{49}

The probability that the first card dealt to Blake shall NOT be of the same type is 24 25 \frac{24}{25} . Only 3 out of 49 cards could form a pair for Blake: 24 25 3 49 \dfrac{24}{25}*\dfrac{3}{49}

And all in all: 24/25 3/49+1/25 1/49=73/(25*49) So all in all we have: 1 25 1 49 + 24 25 3 49 = 73 25 49 = 0.05959 > 0.0588 = 1 17 \dfrac{1}{25}*\dfrac{1}{49}+\dfrac{24}{25}*\dfrac{3}{49}=\dfrac{73}{25*49}= \approx0.05959\gt \approx0.0588=\dfrac{1}{17}

So the answer is: Greater than 1/17 \fbox{Greater than 1/17} .

Timon Gurcke
Sep 30, 2018

What is the probability to have a pair?

In total there are ( 52 2 ) {52\choose 2} ways to get 2 cards.

There are 4 cards of each rank and 13 different suits, so there are ( 4 2 ) 13 {4\choose 2}*13 ways to get a pair.

P ( P a i r B l a k e ) = P ( P a i r A m y ) = ( 4 2 ) 13 ( 52 2 ) = 1 17 0.0588 P(Pair_{Blake})=P(Pair_{Amy})=\frac{{4\choose 2}*13}{{52\choose 2}}=\frac{1}{17}\approx 0.0588

Given that Amy is dealt a pair, what is the probability that Blake has a pair?

If we know that Amy has a pair there are ( 50 2 ) {50\choose 2} ways to get 2 cards with ( 4 2 ) 12 {4\choose 2}*12 ways to get a pair of a different rank and ( 2 2 ) {2\choose 2} ways to get a pair of the same rank.

P ( P a i r B l a k e P a i r A m y ) = ( 4 2 ) 12 + ( 2 2 ) ( 50 2 ) = 71 1225 0.0596 P(Pair_{Blake}|Pair_{Amy})=\frac{{4\choose 2}*12+{2\choose 2}}{{50\choose 2}}=\frac{71}{1225} \approx 0.0596

Solution:

1 17 0.0588 < 71 1225 0.0596 \frac{1}{17}\approx 0.0588 < \frac{71}{1225} \approx 0.0596

M. Zeidan
May 17, 2018

Consider the events: A:<<Amy was dealt a pair>> and B:<<Blake was dealt a pair>>

Given that Amy is dealt a pair, the probability that Blake has a pair=p(B|A)= p ( A a n d B ) p ( A ) \frac{p(AandB)}{p(A)} = p ( A B ) . p ( B ) p ( A ) \frac{p(A|B).p(B)}{p(A)} = p ( A B ) p ( A ) \frac{p(A|B)}{p(A)} x 1 17 \frac{1}{17} , with p(A|B)>p(A), so probability required > 1 17 \frac{1}{17} .

Kevin Baas
Feb 18, 2017

Remove 2 more aces, and you've removed all aces. It's as if you started with only 12 different values, instead of 13. The fewer values, the more likely to get a pair.

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