True or False?
x → ∞ lim x + 1 x + sin x = x → ∞ lim d x d ( x + 1 ) d x d ( x + sin x )
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Remember that we have to check the conditions of the theorem before applying it, like in this problem from the previous week .
L’Hôpital's rule is a possible candidate for "most abused theorem in calculus."
Other popular mistakes are:
Love this problem!
Always have to remember what the conditions of a theorem are, before we apply it :)
Can you tell why the 1st one in your other popular ones wrong , or rather I want to know " WHERE IT GOES WRONG"
Mind blowing conceptual question.l love it.
Great explanation! Thank you
This totally took my calculus skills off-guard ! Love it!!
And an equally great solution!!
one thing missing -infinity/-infinity
We can evaluate the limit like this x → ∞ lim x + 1 x + sin x = x → ∞ lim 1 + x 1 1 + x sin x = 1 + 0 1 + 0 = 1 .
So No 0 0 form.
Hence So L'Hospital cannot be applied.
Moral of the question- Dont use theorems without knowing its reason of coming and make your base stronger.
To be clear, it is orginally of ∞ ∞ indeterminate form.
The division by x makes "fixes" this, as is true for all such cases.
'for all such cases' means what?
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Consider the Taylor (or Laurent) polynomial at the limit point. Which power has the first non-zero coefficient?
@Md Zuhair Can you state why we can apply L'Hopital Rule on 0 0 form and not in a form like 1 1 .
i guess your base is very much strong...
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Because the whole theorem is based on that idea that when 0 0 comes, then
x → a lim g ( x ) f ( x ) = x → a lim g ′ ( x ) f ′ ( x )
The theorem is proved on that base :P
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Indeed. When it is of the form 1 1 , can you tell what the limit is?
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@Calvin Lin – Sir, when its of the form 1 1 isnt the limit 1 ?
But you still should check the second part, because even if we can't apply L'Hospital we could by sheer luck still have an equality...
No matter how large the value of x is, sine and cosine will just throw value in [-1, 1] range. No need for L'Hospital' s.
Doesn't really give a solution to the problem...
That is true, but is the L'Hopital Rule valid here, at all?
Yeah, but how does that answer the question? Is the limit true or false?
49% got right. everyone probably just guessed.
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This may be checked directly: x → ∞ lim x + 1 x + sin x = x → ∞ lim 1 + x 1 1 + x sin x = 1 + 0 1 + 0 = 1 . x → ∞ lim d x d ( x + 1 ) d x d ( x + sin x ) = x → ∞ lim 1 1 + cos x = 1 + x → ∞ lim cos x , which does not exist! Obviously, the two sides aren't equal!
So why doesn't L’Hôpital's rule work in this limit? We can easily check that the original limit had the indeterminate limit form ∞ ∞ , after all. The problem, it turns out, is that most people either have forgotten or never learned the complete statement of L’Hôpital's rule, so here it is, in its entirety:
L’Hôpital's Rule : If x → a lim g ( x ) f ( x ) is an indeterminate limit of the form 0 0 or ∞ ∞ AND x → a lim g ′ ( x ) f ′ ( x ) exists [i.e. it either equals a real number or ± ∞ ], then x → a lim g ( x ) f ( x ) = x → a lim g ′ ( x ) f ′ ( x ) .
The moral of this story is that you can still use L’Hôpital's rule as usual, but if you end up with a limit that doesn't exist, then you can't claim the original limit doesn't exist.