The Limits of L’Hôpital

Calculus Level 2

True or False?

lim x x + sin x x + 1 = lim x d d x ( x + sin x ) d d x ( x + 1 ) \large \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{x + \sin x}{x+1} = \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{\tfrac{d}{dx}(x + \sin x)}{\tfrac{d}{dx}(x+1)}

True False

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4 solutions

Brian Moehring
Feb 21, 2017

This may be checked directly: lim x x + sin x x + 1 = lim x 1 + sin x x 1 + 1 x = 1 + 0 1 + 0 = 1. \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{x + \sin x}{x + 1} = \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{1 + \tfrac{\sin x}{x}}{1 + \tfrac{1}{x}} = \frac{1 + 0}{1 + 0} = 1. lim x d d x ( x + sin x ) d d x ( x + 1 ) = lim x 1 + cos x 1 = 1 + lim x cos x , which does not exist! \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{\tfrac{d}{dx}(x + \sin x)}{\tfrac{d}{dx}(x + 1)} = \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{1 + \cos x}{1} = 1 + \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\cos x\mbox{, which does not exist!} Obviously, the two sides aren't equal!

So why doesn't L’Hôpital's rule work in this limit? We can easily check that the original limit had the indeterminate limit form \frac{\infty}{\infty} , after all. The problem, it turns out, is that most people either have forgotten or never learned the complete statement of L’Hôpital's rule, so here it is, in its entirety:

L’Hôpital's Rule : If lim x a f ( x ) g ( x ) \displaystyle\lim_{x\rightarrow a} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} is an indeterminate limit of the form 0 0 \frac{0}{0} or \frac{\infty}{\infty} AND lim x a f ( x ) g ( x ) \displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow a} \frac{f'(x)}{g'(x)} exists [i.e. it either equals a real number or ± \pm\infty ], then lim x a f ( x ) g ( x ) = lim x a f ( x ) g ( x ) . \lim_{x\rightarrow a} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = \lim_{x\rightarrow a} \frac{f'(x)}{g'(x)}.

The moral of this story is that you can still use L’Hôpital's rule as usual, but if you end up with a limit that doesn't exist, then you can't claim the original limit doesn't exist.

Moderator note:

Remember that we have to check the conditions of the theorem before applying it, like in this problem from the previous week .

L’Hôpital's rule is a possible candidate for "most abused theorem in calculus."

Other popular mistakes are:

  • Applying the rule to something other than a quotient, like lim x 0 1 x 1 sin x \lim_{x\rightarrow 0} \frac{1}{x} - \frac{1}{\sin{x}} (which is a difference).
  • Applying the rule when the indeterminate type is 0 \frac{0}{\infty} or 0 \frac{\infty}{0} instead of the valid cases of 0 0 \frac{0}{0} or . \frac{\infty}{\infty} .
  • Applying L’Hôpital's once correctly but then trying to apply it again when the new limit being calculated doesn't allow for L’Hôpital's any more.

Love this problem!

Always have to remember what the conditions of a theorem are, before we apply it :)

Calvin Lin Staff - 4 years, 3 months ago

Can you tell why the 1st one in your other popular ones wrong , or rather I want to know " WHERE IT GOES WRONG"

Shashaank Khanna - 4 years ago

Mind blowing conceptual question.l love it.

Sum Pan - 3 years, 7 months ago

Great explanation! Thank you

Nathan Richardson - 2 years, 9 months ago

This totally took my calculus skills off-guard ! Love it!!

Anuran Roy - 2 years, 2 months ago

And an equally great solution!!

Anuran Roy - 2 years, 2 months ago

one thing missing -infinity/-infinity

Rong Zhou - 1 year, 1 month ago
Md Zuhair
Feb 21, 2017

We can evaluate the limit like this lim x x + sin x x + 1 = lim x 1 + sin x x 1 + 1 x = 1 + 0 1 + 0 = 1. \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{x + \sin x}{x + 1} = \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{1 + \tfrac{\sin x}{x}}{1 + \tfrac{1}{x}} = \frac{1 + 0}{1 + 0} = 1.

So No 0 0 \dfrac{0}{0} form.

Hence So L'Hospital cannot be applied.

Moral of the question- Dont use theorems without knowing its reason of coming and make your base stronger.

To be clear, it is orginally of \frac{\infty} { \infty} indeterminate form.

The division by x x makes "fixes" this, as is true for all such cases.

Calvin Lin Staff - 4 years, 3 months ago

'for all such cases' means what?

Anthony Cutler - 4 years ago

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Consider the Taylor (or Laurent) polynomial at the limit point. Which power has the first non-zero coefficient?

Calvin Lin Staff - 4 years ago

@Md Zuhair Can you state why we can apply L'Hopital Rule on 0 0 \dfrac{0}{0} form and not in a form like 1 1 \dfrac{1}{1} .

i guess your base is very much strong...

IIT aspirant - 3 years, 11 months ago

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Because the whole theorem is based on that idea that when 0 0 \dfrac{0}{0} comes, then

lim x a f ( x ) g ( x ) = lim x a f ( x ) g ( x ) \displaystyle{\lim_{x \rightarrow a} \dfrac{f(x)}{g(x)} = \lim_{x \rightarrow a} \dfrac{f'(x)}{g'(x)}}

The theorem is proved on that base :P

Md Zuhair - 3 years, 11 months ago

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Indeed. When it is of the form 1 1 \frac{1}{1} , can you tell what the limit is?

Calvin Lin Staff - 3 years, 11 months ago

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@Calvin Lin Sir, when its of the form 1 1 \dfrac{1}{1} isnt the limit 1 \boxed{1} ?

Md Zuhair - 3 years, 11 months ago

But you still should check the second part, because even if we can't apply L'Hospital we could by sheer luck still have an equality...

C . - 2 years, 9 months ago

No matter how large the value of x is, sine and cosine will just throw value in [-1, 1] range. No need for L'Hospital' s.

Doesn't really give a solution to the problem...

Peter van der Linden - 4 years, 3 months ago

That is true, but is the L'Hopital Rule valid here, at all?

Agnishom Chattopadhyay - 4 years, 3 months ago

Yeah, but how does that answer the question? Is the limit true or false?

Pi Han Goh - 4 years, 3 months ago
Nigel Ying
Jun 4, 2019

49% got right. everyone probably just guessed.

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